Dan,
You may attempting to learn a little Greek, but I would also recommend you learn to post a point. Your post is all over the place with no substance to let anyone know what you are really talking about.
You start with this
, and most believers are struck at Matt 16 , and believe that the EKKLESIA/ASSEMBLY means Church
Now there is a lot to cover in Chapter 16 of Matthew. I mean there is the Pharisees testing Jesus, Peter confessing to Jesus, Jesus foretelling of His death, and tons of minor details in between. So what in Matthew 16 are you referring too?
You then state
which is not true , because the Body of Christ is the Body of Christ with Christ as the Head .
So you said in previos portion that most accept ekklesia to mean church, or assembly, or congregation, but you say that is not true because the Body of Christ is the Body of Christ with Christ as the head? Well no kidding, I mean the body of Christ is the body of Christ.
Then finally you state
Matt 16 , does not PRESENT it that way !!!
ok.
Now I have only deal with your first attempt at a point here. And here is an overview of it, if I am piecing it together properly, and correct me if I am wrong.
You are referring to Matthew 16:18 which states
"I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it. (NASB)
So with that in mind you say that it should not be "church" there, but do not really give us any reason to not interpret that verse to mean church, as in the assembly of believers, who do make up the body of Christ. It is obvious that Jesus was not talking bout a church, as in a brick and mortar building, or even a specific group of believers, such as the Apostles. He was speaking of the entire assembly of believers.
Then you attempt to say that Matthew 16 does not present it that way, but you have not even really shown how it was supposed to be shown, and you did not show how it was supposedly incorrect. This sort of stance is liken to me simply stating "You are wrong" and providing you no details as to what you are wrong about, or why you are wrong about it.
And then we get into ultra dispensationalism
Even though just like your first point, you do not present your evidence well or in a clear thought out process. But if I get this correct you are saying that Paul was the first person saved. Because in 1 Timothy 1:15 and 16, the verses should be translated as only meaning 'first' instead of 'foremost' or 'chief'. And you interpret 'first' to imply that with Paul there is a different dispensation, that somehow Paul becomes the first of something new.
So let me address a couple of things in this by bringing out the Scirpture
1 Timothy 15 It is a trustworthy statement, deserving full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, among whom I am foremost of all. (NASB)
Paul starts off with stating that you can bank on what he is about to say, that it is deserving of acceptance as being true. What was Paul talking about? "that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners". I am sure we can both agree to that. Now the last portion where Paul says he is 'foremost of all'. You would say that the proper way to interpret that verse would be to say Paul was the 'first' of which Jesus saved. But to say that you would have to say that there were no sinners before Paul, and we both know that is not true.
We have to look at who Paul is. Saul was probably responsible for more Christian death's than any one before him, and possibly after him. Saul had more followers of Christ imprisoned. Saul was the Pharisees "Darth Vader" And it becomes evident in Paul's writings that he still has a tinge of remorse over that. He is utterly grateful that God has forgiven him for persecuting his followers and blaspheming Jesus in the manner that Saul did...but we see that come through in some of Paul's writings.
1 Timothy 1:15 where he calls himself the biggest sinner of all basically.
1 Corinthians 15:9 where he tells the church he is not worthy to be called an Apostle because he persecuted God's church.
You went on about Eimi Ego which is translated as 'I am' and attempt to say that because Paul used it and Jesus also used then Paul is the first. John the Baptist used it too, when he said "I am not fit to remove His sandals" and the centurian when he said "Lord, I am not worthy for you to come undery my roof." And there are dozens of other references of other people using 'I am' and the same eimi ego. Sorry that argument holds absolutely no weight. That is like saying because Jesus also used the word "food" that Ronald McDonald is the first of the body of Christ.
And then you switch back to talking of protos and first and say "this means that Paul was the FIRST MEMBER in the Body of Christ"
And I have to ask you a couple of questions here.
What about Peter, James, John, and the other 8? What about the people in mentiond there in Acts 2:47 where it says that "the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved"?
We see that Christ broke bread and had the last supper with the Disciples and referenced the bread as His body. And Christ says that it is for them. Paul refers to the same thing in 1 Corinthians 10:17 and says that "we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread." This would put Paul in the same category as the Disciples to partook of the one bread that Jesus had to offer. And one that Jesus refers to himself as also in John 6:35 where He says He is the bread of life. So Paul is clearly seen as not being any different than the Disciples, that there is no extra dispensation, nor does there need to be. Paul ate of the same bread that James, John, Peter, and the others ate of, that which was the bread of Life that Jesus offered.