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Theology => Debate => Topic started by: dan p on December 31, 2010, 06:54:59 PM



Title: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on December 31, 2010, 06:54:59 PM
Hi to all , and most believers are struck at Matt 16 , and believe that the  EKKLESIA/ASSEMBLY  means Church , which is not true , because the  Body of Christ is the Body of Christ with Christ as the Head .

 Matt 16 , does not  PRESENT  it that way !!!

 This is what 1 Tim 1:15 , and here is a literal translation ;  v15  ;  Faithful  ( is )  the Word and worthy of all reception , that Christ Jesus came into the world /KOSMOS   to save  SINNERS  of whom I am  ( the )   FIRST / PROTOS .

THE USE OF  " CHIEF "  in the KJV  represents A MAJOR  cover up in translation work .  "  CHIEF  "  ,  would imply that Paul was the worst sinner , and he was bad , but the emphasis  IS NOT who is the worst !!

 The word  " chief /protos ,  is used in a secondary sense when speaking of  "  Rank or Dignity "

 When reading 1 Tim 1:16 , " in order that in me  FIRST/PROTOS  , Christ  Jesus  might show forth all longsuffering  for a  PATTERN   of the ones coming to believe on Him unto everlasting life .

 What is also interesting , in verse 15 and 16 the  EMPHATIC   Greek words  " I am  "  in the Greek is ,  EIMI EGO and it literally means   "  I   AM  " .

  These words were used of our Lord many times in the 4  gospels , especially the  "  I AM "  of John's Gospel .

 The use of  PROTOS , first  and should be translated  " first  " in each verse , 15 and 16 .

 In the  KJV  , it was translated  " beginning "  in John 2:10  and in 2 Peter 2:20 .   

 So , this means that Paul was the  FIRST  MEMBER in the Body of Christ ,  dan p


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: freelygive on January 04, 2011, 10:40:13 AM
Do you actually speak Greek?



Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 04, 2011, 01:59:06 PM
Do you actually speak Greek?



 Hi freelygive , and I  am  NOT   a Greek scholar , but I am learnining from some one who is .  If you google R. C. Brock has been teaching me through his book and his translation of Pauls letters .  I have debate people who know more Greek than I , but have stood the test so far .

Then , there is the KJV in the internet , that will give at least give you the  VERB  TENSE  and you will learn more that what Pastors  know or can tell you .

 The more important tense is the  AORIST  TENSE . 


 I also have   MACHEN , NEW  TESTAMENT GREEK  FOR BEGINNERS  and have and interliner Greek bible with English and the Greek translation , and you will be on your way .  dan p


 



Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 05, 2011, 09:57:14 AM
Dan,

You may attempting to learn a little Greek, but I would also recommend you learn to post a point.  Your post is all over the place with no substance to let anyone know what you are really talking about.

You start with this
Quote
, and most believers are struck at Matt 16 , and believe that the  EKKLESIA/ASSEMBLY  means Church
Now there is a lot to cover in Chapter 16 of Matthew.  I mean there is the Pharisees testing Jesus, Peter confessing to Jesus, Jesus foretelling of His death, and tons of minor details in between.  So what in Matthew 16 are you referring too?

You then state
Quote
which is not true , because the  Body of Christ is the Body of Christ with Christ as the Head .
So you said in previos portion that most accept ekklesia to mean church, or assembly, or congregation, but you say that is not true because the Body of Christ is the Body of Christ with Christ as the head?  Well no kidding, I mean the body of Christ is the body of Christ.

Then finally you state
Quote
Matt 16 , does not  PRESENT  it that way !!!
ok.

Now I have only deal with your first attempt at a point here.  And here is an overview of it, if I am piecing it together properly, and correct me if I am wrong.
You are referring to Matthew 16:18 which states
"I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it. (NASB)

So with that in mind you say that it should not be "church" there, but do not really give us any reason to not interpret that verse to mean church, as in the assembly of believers, who do make up the body of Christ.  It is obvious that Jesus was not talking bout a church, as in a brick and mortar building, or even a specific group of believers, such as the Apostles.  He was speaking of the entire assembly of believers.

Then you attempt to say that Matthew 16 does not present it that way, but you have not even really shown how it was supposed to be shown, and you did not show how it was supposedly incorrect.  This sort of stance is liken to me simply stating "You are wrong" and providing you no details as to what you are wrong about, or why you are wrong about it.

And then we get into ultra dispensationalism
Even though just like your first point, you do not present your evidence well or in a clear thought out process.  But if I get this correct you are saying that Paul was the first person saved.  Because in 1 Timothy 1:15 and 16, the verses should be translated as only meaning 'first' instead of 'foremost' or 'chief'.  And you interpret 'first' to imply that with Paul there is a different dispensation, that somehow Paul becomes the first of something new. 

So let me address a couple of things in this by bringing out the Scirpture
1 Timothy 15 It is a trustworthy statement, deserving full acceptance, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners, among whom I am foremost of all. (NASB)

Paul starts off with stating that you can bank on what he is about to say, that it is deserving of acceptance as being true.  What was Paul talking about?  "that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners".  I am sure we can both agree to that.  Now the last portion where Paul says he is 'foremost of all'.  You would say that the proper way to interpret that verse would be to say Paul was the 'first' of which Jesus saved.  But to say that you would have to say that there were no sinners before Paul, and we both know that is not true. 

We have to look at who Paul is.  Saul was probably responsible for more Christian death's than any one before him, and possibly after him.  Saul had more followers of Christ imprisoned.  Saul was the Pharisees "Darth Vader"  And it becomes evident in Paul's writings that he still has a tinge of remorse over that.  He is utterly grateful that God has forgiven him for persecuting his followers and blaspheming Jesus in the manner that Saul did...but we see that come through in some of Paul's writings.
1 Timothy 1:15 where he calls himself the biggest sinner of all basically.
1 Corinthians 15:9 where he tells the church he is not worthy to be called an Apostle because he persecuted God's church.

You went on about Eimi Ego which is translated as 'I am' and attempt to say that because Paul used it and Jesus also used then Paul is the first.  John the Baptist used it too, when he said "I am not fit to remove His sandals" and the centurian when he said "Lord, I am not worthy for you to come undery my roof."  And there are dozens of other references of other people using 'I am' and the same eimi ego.  Sorry that argument holds absolutely no weight.  That is like saying because Jesus also used the word "food" that Ronald McDonald is the first of the body of Christ.

And then you switch back to talking of protos and first and say "this means that Paul was the FIRST MEMBER in the Body of Christ"
And I have to ask you a couple of questions here.
What about Peter, James, John, and the other 8?  What about the people in mentiond there in Acts 2:47 where it says that "the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved"?

We see that Christ broke bread and had the last supper with the Disciples and referenced the bread as His body.  And Christ says that it is for them.  Paul refers to the same thing in 1 Corinthians 10:17 and says that "we who are many are one body; for we all partake of the one bread." This would put Paul in the same category as the Disciples to partook of the one bread that Jesus had to offer.  And one that Jesus refers to himself as also in John 6:35 where He says He is the bread of life.  So Paul is clearly seen as not being any different than the Disciples, that there is no extra dispensation, nor does there need to be.  Paul ate of the same bread that James, John, Peter, and the others ate of, that which was the bread of Life that Jesus offered. 


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 05, 2011, 01:17:43 PM
[quote author.
What about Peter, James, John, and the other 8?  What about the people in mentiond there in Acts 2:47 where it says that "the Lord was adding to their number day by day those who were being saved"?

 Hi Brother Jerry , so lets begin with  " what about Peter , James , John and the other 8 " ??

 So , what about them  ???   Are they in the Body of Christ ?? 

 Where is your verse for that ???

 dan p



Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 05, 2011, 02:39:11 PM
I showed you where they partook of the bread that Christ called His body.  There is more to support the Disciples are part of the body of Christ, than there is for you to say it started with Paul.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Soldier4Christ on January 05, 2011, 03:12:38 PM
Eph 2:16  And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
Eph 2:17  And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
Eph 2:18  For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.
Eph 2:19  Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;
Eph 2:20  And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
Eph 2:21  In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
Eph 2:22  In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.


Eph 3:6  That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:



Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 05, 2011, 04:16:58 PM
Thanks PR....was getting busy at work, so did not have chance to dig up more.  But that was one I was heading too :)


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Soldier4Christ on January 05, 2011, 04:51:38 PM
Thanks PR....was getting busy at work, so did not have chance to dig up more.  But that was one I was heading too :)

 ;)


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 05, 2011, 05:51:45 PM
Thanks PR....was getting busy at work, so did not have chance to dig up more.  But that was one I was heading too :)

 Hi Bother Jerry , since you were headed to Eph 3:6 , can you tell me your understanding as to what this verse means ??


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 06, 2011, 08:37:34 AM
Just what it says, but just in case, let's put the whole verse here.

Ephesians 3:6 to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel, (NASB)

So that the Gentiles through Jesus are now heirs to the kingdom of heaven, just like the Jews were before.  That the Gentiles are part of the same body of Christ, that the Jews were before, that the Gentiles were now partakers of the promise which is eternal life through Jesus Christ, just as the Jews were before.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: duval on January 06, 2011, 11:46:17 AM
I am not familiar with the work of "Brock".  Thayer has long been recognized by many as the standard when it comes to Greek. English lexicons.  He does not agree with Brock, see pg. 555.---God bless, duval


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 06, 2011, 02:18:52 PM
Just what it says, but just in case, let's put the whole verse here.

Ephesians 3:6 to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel, (NASB)

So that the Gentiles through Jesus are now heirs to the kingdom of heaven, just like the Jews were before.  That the Gentiles are part of the same body of Christ, that the Jews were before, that the Gentiles were now partakers of the promise which is eternal life through Jesus Christ, just as the Jews were before.

 Hi Bother Jerry , so where is the verse that says the Gentiles are now heirs to  " the Kingdom of Heaven "??


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 06, 2011, 02:24:09 PM
I am not familiar with the work of "Brock".  Thayer has long been recognized by many as the standard when it comes to Greek. English lexicons.  He does not agree with Brock, see pg. 555.---God bless, duval

 Hi duval and the only one that know of Brock are Pauline Dispensationalists , like  C R Stam and Paul Sadler of Berean Bible Society and those that follow dispensational teaching .


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: duval on January 06, 2011, 06:37:07 PM
That figures!

Respectfully,
duval


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 06, 2011, 06:46:28 PM
That figures!

Respectfully,
duval

 Hi , and if you have figured it out , what is Dispensationalism , so start a new thread , why not ???


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: duval on January 06, 2011, 07:56:23 PM
You completelly missed my point.


duval


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 07, 2011, 08:57:31 AM
You two say a great deal of the same thing....not much.

Duval...if Dan missed your point....why did you not elaborate and explain how he missed your point?  Cause I can tell you right now that Dan is still wondering that himself.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: duval on January 07, 2011, 10:47:55 AM
Hi Jerry

I reallly didn't want to go that far in this discussion but since asked I shall in a nutshell do so.  Some religions, Jehovah's Witnessess for example depend upon their  special writers for their truths.  I  am persuaded such is true of  dispensationalism as can clearly be seem by names of men and books  entered into the thread.  I have no time for such confusion!

God bless,
duval


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 07, 2011, 10:49:43 AM
Thank you Duval.  I hope that helps Dan out. 


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 07, 2011, 01:45:25 PM
Hi Jerry

I reallly didn't want to go that far in this discussion but since asked I shall in a nutshell do so.  Some religions, Jehovah's Witnessess for example depend upon their  special writers for their truths.  I  am persuaded such is true of  dispensationalism as can clearly be seem by names of men and books  entered into the thread.  I have no time for such confusion!

God bless,
duval

Hi duval , and who I follow is Paul , since he is the one that follows Christ as Paul writes by the Holy Spirit .


 In  1 Cor 11:1 says , Be ye  FOLLOWERS/ IMITATORS  of me  , even as I also am of Christ  .


 What it means is , " you become " is a command to become followers as Paul leads  .

Then in  1 Cor 4:16 Paul writes by the Holy Spirit , "  Therefore ,  I encourage you , become  (   a  command  )   IMITATORS   of me  .


 Check out  Eph 5::1  ,  Phil 3:17  speak in the same way , "  become IMITATORS " .

 These writers , like Charles Baker ,  C R Stam , Les Feldick and Robert C  Brock  all write of Dispensationalism as Paul has also written and follow Paul . 

 dan p


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: duval on January 07, 2011, 02:22:07 PM
Hi Dan

Paul wrote of false terachers as well!

Jesus said "search the scriptures" not the works of men.  Sorry Dan.
God bless, duval


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 07, 2011, 03:29:49 PM
I concur Duval.

Dan you are ignoring THE most important part of that verse.  "Even as I imitate Christ"  Imitation is not following.  Following means one is leading while others follow, to imitate can put people on equal footing, one is simply imitating what the other is doing.  And that is what Paul preaches, act like he does, act in accordance to Jesus, we are not to follow Paul as if he was some sort of leader to be above any other man, as a matter of fact in that same chapter in verse 3 it says "But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, "  There is no exclusion of anyone in that. 


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 07, 2011, 06:40:45 PM
I concur Duval.

Dan you are ignoring THE most important part of that verse.  "Even as I imitate Christ"  Imitation is not following.  Following means one is leading while others follow, to imitate can put people on equal footing, one is simply imitating what the other is doing.  And that is what Paul preaches, act like he does, act in accordance to Jesus, we are not to follow Paul as if he was some sort of leader to be above any other man, as a matter of fact in that same chapter in verse 3 it says "But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, "  There is no exclusion of anyone in that. 


 Hi Brother Jerry and duval , and you should all check what the   VERB  TEXT  is saying , first .


 In 1 Cor 11:1  "  Be  ye followers/ IMITATORS of me " .

 Be in Greek , GINOMAL  ( G3402  in Strong's  )  is i9n the Greek present tense , continuing tense , the Passive voice  , and in the Imperative Mood , which all are  COMMANDED TO DO .

 You are wrong ???    Yes you are !!


 


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 10, 2011, 12:10:58 PM
Dan,

Your point there does not negate what Paul says in that sentence as well.  As he imitates Christ, and that Christ is the head of everyman.  We are to follow Christ, not Paul, we are to imitate Paul, who is imitating Christ.  Paul speaks of exactly what you are attempting to say in 1 Corinthians 1

1 Corinthians 1:12-13
12 Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I am of Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ."
13 Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?

We see again that Paul explains that he is only a messenger, there is nothing special about him, nothing new with him.  Christ was crucified for the everyone and his message is the same that was Christ, or Peter's, or James, or John's.  There is no special dispensation that started with Paul, he preaches strongly against that.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 10, 2011, 02:00:51 PM
Dan,

Your point there does not negate what Paul says in that sentence as well.  As he imitates Christ, and that Christ is the head of everyman.  We are to follow Christ, not Paul, we are to imitate Paul, who is imitating Christ.  Paul speaks of exactly what you are attempting to say in 1 Corinthians 1

1 Corinthians 1:12-13
12 Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I am of Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ."
13 Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?

We see again that Paul explains that he is only a messenger, there is nothing special about him, nothing new with him.  Christ was crucified for the everyone and his message is the same that was Christ, or Peter's, or James, or John's.  There is no special dispensation that started with Paul, he preaches strongly against that.

 Hi Brother Jerry and reread post #23 .
 
 1 Cor 1:12-17 is a completely different interpretation , and why not explain 1 Cor 1:12-17 ???  you can do it !!!


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 10, 2011, 04:38:14 PM
Quote
Hi Brother Jerry and reread post #23 .
I did and my point still stands.  Paul imitates Jesus, if we are to imitate Paul then we should imitate Jesus.  Paul is not trying to say he is any more "special" than anyone else.  Paul even explains that Christ should be the leader of every man, the head.  We should not follow Paul, but follow Jesus.
 
Quote
1 Cor 1:12-17 is a completely different interpretation , and why not explain 1 Cor 1:12-17 Huh  you can do it !!!
Again you try and say a point and do not present anything.  You say it is a completely diffeent translation and then do not say what it is supposed to be.  But here for you I will post it here.

1 Corinthians 1:12-17
12 Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I am of Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ."
13 Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?
14 I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius,
15 so that no one would say you were baptized in my name.
16 Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other.
17 For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, so that the cross of Christ would not be made void.

now what you may be getting out of this is that since Paul says that Christ sent him to preach the Gospel that it must have started with Paul, but in order to state that you would have to say that Christ never told anyone else to preach the Gospel, which we know is wrong.  I mean these verses seem pretty clear to me and without any problems or complex translations.  You get somethging different from that?


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 10, 2011, 05:54:03 PM
I did and my point still stands.  Paul imitates Jesus, if we are to imitate Paul then we should imitate Jesus.  Paul is not trying to say he is any more "special" than anyone else.  Paul even explains that Christ should be the leader of every man, the head.  We should not follow Paul, but follow Jesus.
 Again you try and say a point and do not present anything.  You say it is a completely different translation and then do not say what it is supposed to be.  But here for you I will post it here.

1 Corinthians 1:12-17
12 Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I am of Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ."
13 Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?
14 I thank God that I baptized none of you except Crispus and Gaius,
15 so that no one would say you were baptized in my name.
16 Now I did baptize also the household of Stephanas; beyond that, I do not know whether I baptized any other.
17 For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, so that the cross of Christ would not be made void.

now what you may be getting out of this is that since Paul says that Christ sent him to preach the Gospel that it must have started with Paul, but in order to state that you would have to say that Christ never told anyone else to preach the Gospel, which we know is wrong.  I mean these verses seem pretty clear to me and without any problems or complex translations.  You get somethging different from that?

 Hi Bother Jerry , and here is what you should explain and it is #14  , Is this baptism  WET  or  DRY ?? 

 Have verse for your explanation .

 And what is your exegesis of #17 ??

 On 2  Cor2:10 the Holy  Spirit writes through Paul  , To whom ye forgive  ANYTHING , I forgive also  , for IF I forgave any thing , to whom I forgave it , for your sakes forgave  I it  in  THE  PERSON  OF  CHRIST .

 The 12 Apostles could forgives sins in John 20:23 and Paul had as much authority !!

 


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: freelygive on January 16, 2011, 09:00:15 AM
Hi freelygive , and I  am  NOT   a Greek scholar , but I am learnining from some one who is .  If you google R. C. Brock has been teaching me through his book and his translation of Pauls letters .  I have debate people who know more Greek than I , but have stood the test so far .

So you don't even speak Greek and you're telling us what the Greek text means? You can only understand the New Testament in Greek if you speak Greek fluently. If you don't, you're merely paraphrasing dictionaries and grammars written by "scholars" who don't speak Greek either. (To be frank, you don't even speak English properly, so how can I trust your Greek-to-English translation?)

English is my second language and I can speak it fluently on an advanced level, yet I still don't understand everything in the King James Version. And that's after more than ten years of being able to speak English fluently! So how can I expect ANYONE who doesn't actually speak Greek for years to be able to explain what the Greek New Testament means?

And secondly, nothing is lost in translation. No language is "occult". The English of the King James Version means exactly the same to me as the Greek of the New Testament to a Greek hundreds of years ago. Anyone who reverts to the Greek to explain some new "hidden" interpretation is a false prophet proclaiming a damnable heresy.

There is a good sermon on this subject, "The Law of the Lord is perfect", http://www.faithfulwordbaptist.org/032909a.mp3 (http://www.faithfulwordbaptist.org/032909a.mp3).


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 17, 2011, 08:54:35 AM
Freely.

Let me start by saying welcome to the forums.  I do not know if I had a chance to welcome you officially so I will do so now.

Good post and you are correct in that your English is very good.  And do not fret.  I have been speaking English all my life (40+ yrs) and there are still parts of it that confuse me.  While it is English, it is like any other language and it changes over time.  The Chinese spoken today, is not the same as it was spoken 400 years ago, and the same can be said of German, Spanish, or any other language.  But good job and thank you.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 17, 2011, 08:54:57 AM
Quote
Hi Bother Jerry , and here is what you should explain and it is #14  , Is this baptism  WET  or  DRY ??

 Have verse for your explanation .

 And what is your exegesis of #17 ??

 On 2  Cor2:10 the Holy  Spirit writes through Paul  , To whom ye forgive  ANYTHING , I forgive also  , for IF I forgave any thing , to whom I forgave it , for your sakes forgave  I it  in  THE  PERSON  OF  CHRIST .

 The 12 Apostles could forgives sins in John 20:23 and Paul had as much authority !!
no Dan.  I should not have to explain anything.  You were the original poster here.  You were the one trying to make a point and you are the one who is failing miserably at that.

If you are getting something from verse 14 you should explain what it is you are trying to say.

If you have some other meaning than what the verse plainly states in verse 14 or verse 17 then it is on you to explain what it is you are talking about.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 19, 2011, 07:46:03 PM
no Dan.  I should not have to explain anything.  You were the original poster here.  You were the one trying to make a point and you are the one who is failing miserably at that.

If you are getting something from verse 14 you should explain what it is you are trying to say.

If you have some other meaning than what the verse plainly states in verse 14 or verse 17 then it is on you to explain what it is you are talking about.


 Hi Bother Jerry , so do not debate , for this is what this site is for , and I am on many sites , best to you , as I will not demand that you debate , but it does look bad for you , dan p


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 20, 2011, 09:26:25 AM
And there is where you are wrong Dan.  I do not look bad for asking you to explain your original position.  I do not look bad for asking you to clarify points in your original post.  It is you who used logical fallacies in attempting to bolster your point by doing nothing but ask questions instead of answering questions already posited to you.

And by the way I did answer your questions, but of course you apparently did not see those answers.  I stated that they were clear in what they said.  I have already stated that vs 14 is a water baptism, a symbolic baptism.  I also stated that vs 17 is clearly what it states.  But I challenged you on both of those and many others to explain what you feel they mean.  But you have yet to do so.

And sorry Dan...you have yet to even start to debate.  Debate requires discussion, and more importantly a discourse on what your actual point is.  You have made few, and none in relation to your original post.  Now if you would like to start over and explain the point you were trying to make, then please do so.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 20, 2011, 01:49:36 PM
Dan,

You may attempting to learn a little Greek, but I would also recommend you learn to post a point.  Your post is all over the place with no substance to let anyone know what you are really talking about.

You start with thisNow there is a lot to cover in Chapter 16 of Matthew.  I mean there is the Pharisees testing Jesus, Peter confessing to Jesus, Jesus foretelling of His death, and tons of minor details in between.  So what in Matthew 16 are you referring too?

 Hi Bother Jerry and am sorry that you are missing my teaching on Matt 16 . 

 #1 , THE WORD CHURCH in Matt 16:18  is talking about an Assembly of believers   NOT  the Body of Christ , and do you see that  BJ

DAN P


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 20, 2011, 04:34:05 PM

 Hi Bother Jerry and am sorry that you are missing my teaching on Matt 16 . 

 #1 , THE WORD CHURCH in Matt 16:18  is talking about an Assembly of believers   NOT  the Body of Christ , and do you see that  BJ

DAN P

What makes you think that Jesus is speaking of only an assembly of believers and not the entire assembly of believers, which is the body of Christ?  Which also begs the questions how do you differentiate between the Body of Christ and the whole of all believers?

And please it is not so much that I missed anything, but that you have not explained your position well enough.  :)


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on January 25, 2011, 08:29:52 PM
What makes you think that Jesus is speaking of only an assembly of believers and not the entire assembly of believers, which is the body of Christ?  Which also begs the questions how do you differentiate between the Body of Christ and the whole of all believers?

And please it is not so much that I missed anything, but that you have not explained your position well enough.  :)

 Hi BJ , and my laptop quit working and a friend is getting going again and I needed some time to rest as , like many seniors I have medical problems .

 What most believers seem to always forget , is  CONTEXT and the Gospels are all written to God's covenanted people , the Jewish .

  Just look at Matt 26:28 , it is blood of the New Covenant

 Which was shed for the  MANY and How  MANY  is  Many ??

 So , who is He talking too and who are the  MANY ???


 It is the Jews  and from your repeated questions , it looks like you will never understand what I write , o well .




Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on January 27, 2011, 10:46:14 AM
So nothing in the Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John) was written for the Gentile, it was all for the Jew?  Is that your stance?
Can you provide Biblical backing for that?


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: dan p on February 07, 2011, 07:48:09 PM
 Hi Bother Jerry and the  CONTEXT  says it all .  dan p


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on February 08, 2011, 02:01:14 PM
So again:

So nothing in the Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John) was written for the Gentile, it was all for the Jew?  Is that your stance?
Can you provide Biblical backing for that?


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: sealed on February 16, 2011, 07:56:16 PM
1 Timothy 1:15-16 means what it says :)

Paul (then Saul) could not have been forgiven in that world nor in the world to come and yet Paul says IN HIM FIRST Jesus Christ would show forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to those who would believe on Him to life everlasting thereafter.

Take a look: Matthew 12:31-32 KJV Wherefore I say unto you, All manner of sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven unto men: but the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost shall not be forgiven unto men. 32 And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world, neither in the world to come.

Paul: 1 Timothy 1:13-16 KJV Who was before a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and injurious: but I obtained mercy, because I did it ignorantly in unbelief. 14 And the grace of our Lord was exceeding abundant with faith and love which is in Christ Jesus. 15 This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief. 16 Howbeit for this cause I obtained mercy, that in me first Jesus Christ might shew forth all longsuffering, for a pattern to them which should hereafter believe on him to life everlasting.

Remember that Jesus came unto His own and His own received Him not (John 1:11 KJV). They crucified the Lord/. They would have no man to rule over them, but Caesar (John 19:15 KJV). They did not believe that Jesus was the Christ, the Son of the living God. Only a little flock believed. The world was ripe for God's judgment at the rejection of His Son and at the stoning of Stephen (the last straw-so to speak), rather than judgment coming (the wrath to come) God saved the chief of sinners (Acts 9 KJV, 1 Timothy 1:13-16 KJV), His biggest enemy (Galatians 1:13-16 KJV) and through His apostleship/his "office" (Romans 11:13 KJV, 1 Timothy 2:7 KJV, 2 Timothy 1:11 KJV) by the unscheduled appearance(s)/revelations from the risen, glorified Lord Jesus Christ to and through the apostle Paul~ began a mystery body, time, gospel and destination. Through the FALL of Israel (not the RISE) salvation has come unto the Gentiles:

Romans 11:11 KJV I say then, Have they stumbled that they should fall? God forbid: but rather through their fall salvation is come unto the Gentiles, for to provoke them to jealousy. 

Romans 11:25 KJV For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fulness of the Gentiles be come in.

Romans 16:25-27 KJV Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, 26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:27 To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ for ever. Amen.

This is why Paul says:

1 Corinthians 3:10 KJV  According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.

1 Corinthians 4:16 KJV Wherefore I beseech you, be ye followers of me.

1 Corinthians 11:1 KJV Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ.

Romans 2:16 KJV In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.

Romans 16:25 KJV Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

2 Timothy 2:2 KJV And the things that thou hast heard of me among many witnesses, the same commit thou to faithful men, who shall be able to teach others also.

2 Timothy 2:7 KJV Consider what I say; and the Lord give thee understanding in all things. 8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: sealed on February 16, 2011, 08:03:42 PM
So again:

So nothing in the Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John) was written for the Gentile, it was all for the Jew?  Is that your stance?
Can you provide Biblical backing for that?
hi brother Jerry,

I'm not sure I would word it as you did, but isn't it true that Jesus Christ was sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel and commanded the 12 to NOT go into the way of the Gentile?

Matthew 10:5-6 KJV These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: 6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Matthew 10:23 KJV But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I say unto you, Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come.

Matthew 15:24 KJV But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.






Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: sealed on February 16, 2011, 08:04:49 PM
Hi freelygive , and I  am  NOT   a Greek scholar , but I am learnining from some one who is .  If you google R. C. Brock has been teaching me through his book and his translation of Pauls letters .  I have debate people who know more Greek than I , but have stood the test so far .

Then , there is the KJV in the internet , that will give at least give you the  VERB  TENSE  and you will learn more that what Pastors  know or can tell you .

 The more important tense is the  AORIST  TENSE . 


 I also have   MACHEN , NEW  TESTAMENT GREEK  FOR BEGINNERS  and have and interliner Greek bible with English and the Greek translation , and you will be on your way .  dan p


 


Seems like an awful lot of trouble. Why not just believe the Bible?


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: sealed on February 16, 2011, 08:11:52 PM
Just what it says, but just in case, let's put the whole verse here.

Ephesians 3:6 to be specific, that the Gentiles are fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel, (NASB)

So that the Gentiles through Jesus are now heirs to the kingdom of heaven, just like the Jews were before.  That the Gentiles are part of the same body of Christ, that the Jews were before, that the Gentiles were now partakers of the promise which is eternal life through Jesus Christ, just as the Jews were before.
Wow, I know I'm new here and all, but I must disagree with this. Sorry.

That God would save people like you and me was a MYSTERY hid in God!
It was UNSEARCHABLE!

Acts 22:21 KJV And he said unto me, Depart: for I will send thee far hence unto the Gentiles.

Ephesians 2:11-12 KJV Wherefore remember, that ye being in time past Gentiles in the flesh, who are called Uncircumcision by that which is called the Circumcision in the flesh made by hands; 12 That at that time ye were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel, and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope, and without God in the world:

Ephesians 2:13 KJV But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.

Ephesians 3:1-5 KJV For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles, 2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward: 3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in few words, 4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mystery of Christ) 5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

Ephesians 3:6 KJV That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

(fellowheirs with those who first trusted in Christ beginning with Paul (1 Timothy 1:13-16 KJV), and included the Romans, Corinthians, Galatians and Thessalonians)
^^^^^^^^^
Ephesians 1:12 KJV That we should be to the praise of his glory, who first trusted in Christ.

Ephesians 1:13 KJV In whom ye also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation: in whom also after that ye believed, ye were sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, 14 Which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, unto the praise of his glory.

The word of truth, the gospel of your salvation is the gospel of Christ, the power of God unto salvation (Romans 1:16-17 KJV, Ephesians 1:13 KJV)!

The gospel of Christ:

1 Corinthians 15:1-4 KJV Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand; 2 By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain. 3 For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures; 4 And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

It is the ONLY gospel that establishes you into the Body of Christ:

Romans 16:25-27 KJV Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began, 26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith: 27 To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ for ever. Amen.

Ephesians 3:7-9 KJV Whereof I was made a minister, according to the gift of the grace of God given unto me by the effectual working of his power. 8 Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the UNSEARCHABLE riches of Christ; 9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ:

1 Timothy 2:4 KJV Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.

Titus 2:11 KJV For the grace of God that bringeth salvation hath appeared to all men,

The only gospel that will save you today is the gospel that was revealed to and through the apostle Paul by the risen, glorified Lord Jesus Christ.

Galatians 1:11-12 KJV But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. 12 For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Ephesians 6:19-20 KJV And for me, that utterance may be given unto me, that I may open my mouth boldly, to make known the mystery of the gospel, 20 For which I am an ambassador in bonds: that therein I may speak boldly, as I ought to speak.


2 Timothy 2:15 KJV Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.



Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: sealed on February 17, 2011, 06:17:12 AM
Dan,

Your point there does not negate what Paul says in that sentence as well.  As he imitates Christ, and that Christ is the head of everyman.  We are to follow Christ, not Paul, we are to imitate Paul, who is imitating Christ.  Paul speaks of exactly what you are attempting to say in 1 Corinthians 1

1 Corinthians 1:12-13
12 Now I mean this, that each one of you is saying, "I am of Paul," and "I of Apollos," and "I of Cephas," and "I of Christ."
13 Has Christ been divided? Paul was not crucified for you, was he? Or were you baptized in the name of Paul?

We see again that Paul explains that he is only a messenger, there is nothing special about him, nothing new with him.  Christ was crucified for the everyone and his message is the same that was Christ, or Peter's, or James, or John's.  There is no special dispensation that started with Paul, he preaches strongly against that.
1 Corinthians 3:10 KJV According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.

1 Corinthians 9:17 KJV For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.

Ephesians 3:2 KJV If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Colossians 1:25 KJV Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on February 17, 2011, 08:42:46 AM
hi brother Jerry,

I'm not sure I would word it as you did, but isn't it true that Jesus Christ was sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel and commanded the 12 to NOT go into the way of the Gentile?

Matthew 10:5-6 KJV These twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: 6 But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Matthew 10:23 KJV But when they persecute you in this city, flee ye into another: for verily I say unto you, Ye shall not have gone over the cities of Israel, till the Son of man be come.

Matthew 15:24 KJV But he answered and said, I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel.

Wait please do not confuse what I said.  I was asking of Danp to clarify his position.  And I asked the following, and I will bold some important key words.

"So nothing in the Gospels (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John) was written for the Gentile, it was all for the Jew? "

I stand by what I asked of Dan in clarifying his position. 


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on February 17, 2011, 08:46:55 AM
1 Corinthians 3:10 KJV According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.

1 Corinthians 9:17 KJV For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.

Ephesians 3:2 KJV If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Colossians 1:25 KJV Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

I am not certain what you are disagreeing with...The verses you cited are exactly what I was referring too...that the Gentiles...which is me, and I assume that unless you were born a Jew, includes you, are also included in salvation....we are now joint heirs.  We are given the same salvation that was given to the Jews in Jesus.  We are all now under Grace.


Title: Re: What 1 Tim 1:15 and 16 mean ??
Post by: Brother Jerry on February 17, 2011, 09:06:39 AM
1 Corinthians 3:10 KJV According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.

1 Corinthians 9:17 KJV For if I do this thing willingly, I have a reward: but if against my will, a dispensation of the gospel is committed unto me.

Ephesians 3:2 KJV If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Colossians 1:25 KJV Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

But none of these verses state what Paul teaches is any different than what Christ taught.  Nor do they say that the "dispensation" he is teaching is something new that started with him.  I love though the idea that pulling things out of the Bible and citing them makes you feel like you are proving your point.

1 Corinthians 3:10-11
10 According to the grace of God which is given unto me, as a wise masterbuilder, I have laid the foundation, and another buildeth thereon. But let every man take heed how he buildeth thereupon.
11 For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ.
now compare to what Christ had to say.
Matthew 21:42 Jesus saith unto them, Did ye never read in the scriptures, The stone which the builders rejected, the same is become the head of the corner: this is the Lord's doing, and it is marvellous in our eyes?
Also look at what Paul writes in Ephesians 2:20
Ephesians 2:20 And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
From here we see that everything is built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets with Jesus being just what He called Himself...the chief corner stone.  Paul does not say there is anything different being built with him, or even with the apostles, it is all part of the same "building"
Also look into Revelations 21:14
Revelations 21:14 And the wall of the city had twelve foundations, and in them the names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb.
Here we see that the foundation stones were the apostles, not Paul.

There is no one man band when it comes to the Gospel, unless that one man is Christ.  There is no ultra-dispensation because that puts more emphasis on Paul than on even Christ, and Paul expressed time and time again that he was not worthy of any praise.  And it was not about Paul, but should always be about Christ, and that what he taught was exactly the same as what Christ taught...the chief corner stone...the core of the foundation.