Part 2:
"Let no man deceive you by any means; for that day shall not come except the departure come first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition."
There is abundant evidence for this rendering, as we shall now proceed to prove.
APOSTASIA AND APOSTASY
First, our English word apostasy, is not an exact equivalent of the Greek apostasia. The English word apostasy means rebellion, or revolt, against a faith once embraced, but the Greek apostasia means departure, nothing more.
Actually the Greek noun apostasia occurs only once more in the New Testament, namely in Acts 21:21, where Paul is informed of the report that he has taught "all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses."
We suggest that even here the word "depart" would be a closer synonym to the rendering "forsake" than would the word "apostatize." To forsake is not exactly to revolt or rebel against, and this is what our English word apostasy means. Furthermore, in this case we are told that it was reported that Paul urged these Jews to "forsake," or "depart from" Moses, and surely Paul did not urge them toany revolt against Moses or his writings. He merely pointed out that now, by grace,they were free from the Law, that the Law had been fulfilled for them by Christ.
In any case, the Record does not say that Paul had taught the Jews who lived among the Gentiles to "forsake" Moses. It says only that the Jews in Judaea had been "informed" that this was the case. This rumor was probably an exaggeration of what he actually had done in teaching that the Law had now been fulfilled by Christ and that believers are delivered from its curse (Gal. 3:13).
But while the noun apostasia occurs only twice in the New Testament, the root verb from which the noun is derived occurs 15 times, and its meaning is easy to determine. We refer to the verb aphisteemi. So that there may be no mistake, we present here a list of every New Testament use of this verb.
Luke 2:37: "departed not from the temple."
Luke 4:13: "the devil…departed from Him."
Luke 8:13: "in time of temptation fall away."
Luke 13:27: "Depart from Me, all ye workers of iniquity."
Acts 5:37: "drew away much people after him."
Acts 5:38: "refrain from these men."
Acts 12:10: "the angel departed from him."
Acts 15:38: "who departed from them from Pamphilia."
Acts 19:9: "he departed from them."
Acts 22:29: "they departed from him."
II Cor. 12:8:"I besought the Lord... that it might depart from me."
I Tim. 4: 1: "some shall depart from the faith."
I Tim. 6:5: "from such withdraw thyself."
II Tim. 2:19: "depart from iniquity."
Heb. 3:12: "in departing from the living God."
First, the reader should observe carefully that in 11 out of these 15 occurrences the verb in question is rendered depart, departed, or departing, while in the other four close synonyms are used.
Further, only three out of the 15 are concerned with departure from the truth. And in all three it is clearly stated that the departure is "from the faith" (I Tim. 4:1), "from the living God" (Heb. 3:12), and from that which was "for a while believed"
(Luke 8:13), leaving the meaning of the verb aphisteemi itself simply depart -- nothing more -- in all 15 occurrences.
In Luke 4:13 we read that the devil “departed' from Christ. In Acts 12:10 an angel "departs" from Peter. In Acts 15:38 we read that a man had "departed" from Paul and Barnabas. In II Cor. 12:8 we read of Paul's thrice-repeated prayer that a thorn might "depart," or be removed, from his flesh. And so with all the others. Indeed, in two of the 15 cases above the very opposite of apostasy or departure from the truth is involved. In I Tim. 6:5 Timothy is told to depart ("withdraw thyself") from men who are "destitute of the truth," while in II Tim. 2:19 all who "name the name of Christ" are exhorted to "depart from iniquity." Surely these were not instructions to apostatize.
Thus, bear it well in mind, aphisteemi, the root verb of the Greek apostasia, means to depart -- nothing more. Later on we will discuss the particular "departure" referred to in II Thes. 2:3, but first the rendering "a falling away," as compared with "the departure," must be further discussed.
THE AUTHORIZED VERSION AND ITS PREDECESSORS >(SNIP)<
WHAT DEPARTURE? No "falling away" or "apostasy" had been previously mentioned in either epistle, but in the whole of I Thessalonians and also of II Thessalonians up to this point, the Apostle's very theme had been the rapture of the members of the Body of Christ. Thus here in II Thes. 2:3 he must be referring to "the departure" of the Church to be with Christ. This falls naturally into place with the whole context, for why should Paul exhort these believers not to be "shaken" or "troubled," merely because the apostasy must precede the Tribulation? This would be no comfort. Further, how could they recognize "the" apostasy, much less "a" falling away when
CONCLUSION
1. The word apostasia and its root verb aphisteemi, do not, used by themselves, mean “apostasy" and “apostatize." They mean “departure" and “depart," nothing more.
2. II Thes. 2:3 states in the Greek, that the day of the Lord will not come “except the departure come first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition."
3. The term “the departure," with the definite article, denotes previous reference.
4. Paul had written to the Thessalonians in his previous letter about the departure of the members of Christ's Body from this earth (I Thes. 4:16,17) and had even disassociated this from the prophesied “day of the Lord" with the use of the word, “But" in I Thes. 5:1. He had also referred to this “departure" in the phrase ”our gathering together unto Him," in II Thes. 2:1. Indeed, this was the basis for his appeal to the Thessalonians not to be “shaken" or “troubled" by those who would lead them to believe that “the day of the Lord" had already begun. Also, he had “told" them about “these things" while he was yet with them (II Thes. 2:5).
5. “The man of sin" must also be manifested before the “day of the Lord" can come (II Thes. 2:3,4)52 and he cannot be manifested until “the departure" takes place “first."
6. Thus, in addition to many clear proofs that the rapture of the Body will precede the Tribulation we also have a passage which “explicitly affirms" this.
“WHEREFORE COMFORT ONE ANOTHER…” (I Thes. 4:18).
“BE NOT SOON SHAKEN IN MIND, OR… TROUBLED…” (II Thes. 2:2).
“LET NO MAN DECEIVE YOU BY ANY MEANS…” (II Thes. 2:3).
Evangelist said:
FWIW BigD, don't go overboard trying to separate and render meaningless the interlocking roles (and words spoken) played by ALL the characters of the bible. Such compartmentalization means simply that the Word is then NOT rightly divided....but is chopped up into separate rooms that certainly DON'T fit together..."a building fitly framed."
BigD:
If you mean by "compartmentalize" that I make a distinction bewtween the promises and the innstructions in righteousness, that God gave to Moses for the children of Israel, through the Law, and the promises and instructions in righteousness to members of the Body of Christ that God gave to Paul through the preaching of "the gospel of the GRACE of God, and the revelation of "the MYSTERY, then I am guilty. That is what I call "rightly dividing the word of truth."
God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Much and Love The Lord!