Michael said:
"Here is your major problem, Paul didn't have a Gospel. The Gospel is Jesus Christ's and His alone. Paul could only preach that which was revealed to him by Jesus."
Below is what I was referring to when Paul says it was "his gospel":
Rom 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.
Rom 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel,
2 Tim 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:
I understand that Paul got his message from Christ directly
My point was that Paul's teaching concerning salvation and Christ's cannot be different and your interpretation of Paul's message is different from the Gospel message of Jesus.
Micahel said:
"How do you know that this is in reference to John's Baptism? It appears this is just another assumption of yours."
Just show me where John's message of baptism changed from John 1:31.
I didn't say that John the Baptist's message changed I am saying that the apostles never baptized in John's baptism they baptized in the name of the father and the son and the holy spirit and you assume with no basis that this is not the baptism referred to in Acts 2. I repeat do you have any basis to claim that the Apostles were intending the Baptism of John the Baptism and not the Baptism they had been sent out by Christ to do?
In fact we see in Acts 2:38 that this is not John the Baptist's baptism as he did not baptize in Jesus name and no one ever received the gift of the Holy Spirit through John's baptism.
Act 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Why would Peter be instructing people to be baptized as John the Baptist did it when Jesus told him to do it differently?
Mat 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
Michael said:
"The Greek translated as remission in Acts 2:38 is aphesis - Strong's 859 meaning deliverance, forgiveness, liberty, remission."
Again we have different authorities - which Greek lexicon or mss?
The two words are the same in the textus receptus the basis of the KJV. To accept the KJV and not accept the Greek it was translated from is illogical.
My authority is the King James Bible and if I need to look up a word I will look it up in a Webster's but the final authroity is the KJV. You already know this about me so when you quote the Greek to me it is falling on deaf ears - sorry.
I understand your position, that doesn't mean I won't point out the flaws and inconsistencies in it for other readers to see.
Michael said:
"So verse 37, they ask, “What shall we do?” and the question, “What shall we do?” indisputably means, What shall we do to be saved."
No, the verse doesn't say that - you are assuming it says that but it doesn't say that - you are adding to it - very clear you are Michael because if God wanted it there then He would have added it there. When the issue of salvation comes up later then the jailer asks:
Acts 16:30 And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved? You just can't beat the book!!!
This wasn't me this was Shy Lynne - you got us confused trying to answer two posts at once. It is more respectful to address each persons objects separately as lumping us together does more than lead to confusion as you will find your debaters may not agree on many points between themselves as well, (Shy Lynne and I are a good example) and an argument that carries weight with me may be non-sensical to her and vice versa.
My point, which you have not addressed yet, was that the preceeding events make it clear the remission/forgiveness of sins was for salvation as referred to in Acts 2:21
Act 2:21 And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.
...and this is not some form of "saved" that is different from salvation, as you claim below because we see elsewhere that calling on His name is one of the descriptions used to refer to the faith of salvation.
John 1:12 But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:
John 3:18 He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
John 20:31 But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.
In fact Paul uses the same instruction to direct the gentiles in Rome to be saved.
Rom 10:13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved - which even in your multiple definitions of the word must be discussing salvation.
I'm not saying people were not "saved" - it is not the same salvation that we have today for back then there was no sealing, raising, redemption, etc.
So now you don't use Webster to find out what a word means - you redefine it on your own just because it doesn't fit your doctrine until it is redefined. Saved doesn't mean saved in the same way in two different areas of the scriptures. That type of inconsistency is never going to result in sound doctrine.
- all those truths that Paul spoke of - It was a kingdom age message aimed primarily for Jews before they finally rejected the kingdom offer and before Christ revealed the body of Chrsit truths to Paul later on.
So now you claim that Paul had additional revelations of Christ's message later in separate events from the ebing struck off his horse and left blind. Tell me where do you get this idea? The only instruction Paul got after that time was from Peter in Galatians.
You don't use the Greek if it contradicts your preconceived doctrine.
You don't use webster if it contradicts your preconceived doctrine.
And now you go outside of scripture to claim Paul recieved additional instruction as time went by that the Apostles did not even receive when Christ was on earth.
You know of course what else that means you are not using because it contradicts you preconceived doctrine!