WillGreek
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1Jn5:20
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« on: February 25, 2004, 04:27:01 PM » |
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v_ plup.act.ind.1.sg. 5 times Rom. 7:7. Act 23:5
v_ plup.act.ind.2.sg. 3 times Jn. 4:10
v_ plup.act.ind.3.sg. 44 times Act 21:26
v_ plup.pas.ind.3.sg. 5 times Act 17:23
v_ plup.midD.ind.3.sg. 1 time Act 26:32
v_ plup.act.ind.2.pl. 4 times Jn 8:19
v_ plup.act.ind.3.pl. 24 times Rev 7:11. 1Jn 2:19 Act 19:32
v_ plup.mid.ind.3.pl. 1 time Jn 9:22
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87 times N.T.
Rev 7:11 1Jn 2:19 Rom 7:7 are the only verses used past the book of Acts.
Why is the pluperfect tense not used more in the books after Acts?
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Fully Greek
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Reba
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« Reply #1 on: February 25, 2004, 05:45:50 PM » |
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I am not the smartest kid on the block what the heck you talking about?
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Shylynne
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« Reply #2 on: February 25, 2004, 06:26:49 PM » |
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ROFL! sorry i`m sure that was a serious question  ...but if you say the word pluperfect out loud it sounds like your mouth is full of marbles ! I`m with reba, say what  |
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“Christianity isn't all that complicated … it's Jesus.” — Joni Eareckson Tada There is no force on earth as powerful as one human soul set ablaze with the Spirit of God - Shylynne |
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JudgeNot
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« Reply #3 on: February 25, 2004, 09:07:41 PM » |
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Reba - I am back in favor of your "ignor button" idea. What in the world is v_ plup.act.ind.... ? Is an indicator out of a particular study bible??? Is it greek.  |
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« Last Edit: February 25, 2004, 09:11:07 PM by JudgeNot »
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Covering your tracks is futile; God knows where you're going and where you've been. JPD |
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Gracey
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« Reply #4 on: February 26, 2004, 09:22:50 AM » |
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This looks like a grammatical indicator: v_ plup.act.ind.1.sg. I could only even begin to guess; v = verb (? maybe) plup = pluperfect (the tense of the verp, as in "past, present, future, etc) as for the rest, But I agree, I can't figure out what he means. Except maybe he's asking why the future present tense of a specific verb (which one, though) isn't used more throughout the remainder of the bible (books after the books of Acts)? |
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†† Guided by God ††
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ollie
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« Reply #5 on: February 26, 2004, 03:47:30 PM » |
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v_ plup.act.ind.1.sg. 5 times Rom. 7:7. Act 23:5
v_ plup.act.ind.2.sg. 3 times Jn. 4:10
v_ plup.act.ind.3.sg. 44 times Act 21:26
v_ plup.pas.ind.3.sg. 5 times Act 17:23
v_ plup.midD.ind.3.sg. 1 time Act 26:32
v_ plup.act.ind.2.pl. 4 times Jn 8:19
v_ plup.act.ind.3.pl. 24 times Rev 7:11. 1Jn 2:19 Act 19:32
v_ plup.mid.ind.3.pl. 1 time Jn 9:22
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87 times N.T.
Rev 7:11 1Jn 2:19 Rom 7:7 are the only verses used past the book of Acts.
Why is the pluperfect tense not used more in the books after Acts?
Huh? One entry found for pluperfect. Main Entry: plu·per·fect Pronunciation: "plü-'p&r-fikt Function: adjective Etymology: Middle English pluperfyth, modification of Late Latin plusquamperfectus, literally, more than perfect 1 : PAST PERFECT 2 : utterly perfect or complete - pluperfect noun Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary. |
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« Last Edit: February 26, 2004, 04:03:51 PM by ollie »
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ollie
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« Reply #6 on: February 26, 2004, 04:11:03 PM » |
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Pluperfect tense, ( "v_ plup.act.ind.3.sg.") is used 44 times in the following verse according to "WillGreek". Acts 21:26. Then Paul took the men, and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple, to signify the accomplishment of the days of purification, until that an offering should be offered for every one of them. Of what relevance is this question? Someone wanting to know why the pluperfect tense is not used more than in three verses after Acts? Perhaps WillGreek is going to clue us in to this snowjobbie? Come on WillGreek, give us a clue? |
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« Last Edit: February 26, 2004, 04:22:57 PM by ollie »
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Reba
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« Reply #7 on: February 26, 2004, 04:18:02 PM » |
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Ollie ! "Etymology: Middle English pluperfyth, modification of Late Latin plusquamperfectus, literally, more than perfect" This is no way to talk to a lady.  |
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ollie
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« Reply #8 on: February 26, 2004, 04:25:57 PM » |
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Ollie ! "Etymology: Middle English pluperfyth, modification of Late Latin plusquamperfectus, literally, more than perfect" This is no way to talk to a lady. ROFL!  What can I say? That you are plupperperfect? |
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« Last Edit: February 26, 2004, 04:27:39 PM by ollie »
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nChrist
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« Reply #9 on: February 27, 2004, 02:49:56 AM » |
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Ollie ! "Etymology: Middle English pluperfyth, modification of Late Latin plusquamperfectus, literally, more than perfect" This is no way to talk to a lady. I certainly agree, and it has my friend all upset and ready to attack: This guy's first two posts were even more pluperfect. They were moved to the theology area, and this one will probably be moved also unless the author comes back and gives us some more pluperfect information about what he's attempting to do.  Love In Christ, Tom |
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Palmoni
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To decide NOT to decide IS to decide!
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« Reply #10 on: February 27, 2004, 08:41:10 AM » |
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:)agrees GEP. When and if i should ever use any form of Greek terms & their function in a context, i will define those terms as simple as possible, so that what is being presented in context becomes clearly understood. Facts & figures are good to know in their place, but we must convey the point we are making plainly since most Bible students are not grounded in greek studies! |
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PALMONI [[ If what you believe is not worth dying for, then maybe it's not worth living for. ]]
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Allinall
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« Reply #11 on: February 27, 2004, 10:29:35 AM » |
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Come on guys. He's asking a sincere Greek question, but perhaps to the wrong group of scholars, myself included. He's asking why this particular usage/tense only appears so few times. The Pluperfect tense... 5779 Tense - Pluperfect
The pluperfect tense in Greek occurs rarely. It corresponds
in a single Greek word to the sense of the English pluperfect,
which indicates an event viewed as having been once and for
all accomplished in past time. In contrast, the perfect tense
reflects the final completion of an action at the present
moment described.
As for the other verb tenses he's listed: plup.act.ind - is Pluperfect Active Indicative, though the 1, 2, 3 sg's I'm uncertain. My Greek-speak is rusty! plup.pas.ind - is Pluperfect Passive Indicative plup.mid.ind - I believe is the middle tense, or Pluperfect Middle Indicative Is that all Greek to you? *L* Me too! The gist is that in the koine Greek, the tenses were much more expressive than we seem to have today. That is, we have the tense usages, we just are simpler in our applications, or use more words to express the concept. I've done little to explain, I'm sure. And Will? I dunno why. Seems to me that it is issue oriented though. That is, God in His infinite wisdom and sovereignty has done some things in the past, that He has enacted, is enacting, and will continue to enact until He's done. Such things, I believe are related to our end result. The bulk tenses used reflect the sanctifying work or the Holy Spirit and the word of God in our lives. The pluperfect tenses relate to the end product via the current means. Make sense? If so...explain it to me? |
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 "that I may know him and the power of his resurrection, and may share his sufferings, becoming like him in his death" |
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WillGreek
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1Jn5:20
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« Reply #12 on: February 27, 2004, 11:00:21 AM » |
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pluperfect tense
A verb tense used to express action completed before a stated or implied past time. In English the pluperfect tense is formed with the past participle of a verb and the auxiliary verb had, as had learned in He had learned to skate before his fourth birthday.
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Fully Greek
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nChrist
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« Reply #13 on: February 28, 2004, 12:45:27 AM » |
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pluperfect tense
A verb tense used to express action completed before a stated or implied past time. In English the pluperfect tense is formed with the past participle of a verb and the auxiliary verb had, as had learned in He had learned to skate before his fourth birthday.
Oklahoma Howdy to WillGreek, Most of us here are just plain folks who love the Lord and His Word. I have seen a past participle once, but I knew it had passed on and buried it. We have some intellectuals here who could stay with you easily, but we come here to relax and fellowship in Christ. Love In Christ, Tom |
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Shylynne
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« Reply #14 on: February 28, 2004, 06:30:25 AM » |
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This is no way to talk to a lady.
LOL!
I have seen a past participle once, but I knew it had passed on and buried it.
I`m with you Tom!
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“Christianity isn't all that complicated … it's Jesus.” — Joni Eareckson Tada There is no force on earth as powerful as one human soul set ablaze with the Spirit of God - Shylynne |
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