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v_ plup.act.ind.1.sg.      5 times Rom. 7:7. Act 23:5
v_ plup.act.ind.2.sg.      3 times Jn. 4:10
v_ plup.act.ind.3.sg.    44 times Act 21:26
v_ plup.pas.ind.3.sg.     5 times Act 17:23
v_ plup.midD.ind.3.sg.  1 time Act 26:32
v_ plup.act.ind.2.pl.      4 times Jn 8:19
v_ plup.act.ind.3.pl.    24 times Rev 7:11. 1Jn 2:19 Act 19:32
v_ plup.mid.ind.3.pl.     1 time Jn 9:22
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                                  87 times N.T.
                                  Rev 7:11 1Jn 2:19 Rom 7:7 are the only verses used past the book of Acts.
                                  Why is the pluperfect tense not used more in the books after Acts?

I am not the smartest kid on the block what the heck you talking about?

ROFL!

sorry i`m sure that was a serious question  :-X
...but if you say the word pluperfect out loud it sounds like your mouth is full of marbles !

I`m with reba, say what ???

Reba - I am back in favor of your "ignor button" idea.

What in the world is ????

Is an indicator out of a particular study bible???  

Is it greek.  ;D

This looks like a grammatical indicator:


I could only even begin to guess; v = verb (? maybe) plup = pluperfect (the tense of the verp, as in "past, present, future, etc) as for the rest,  ???

But I agree, I can't figure out what he means. Except maybe he's asking why the future present tense of a specific verb (which one, though) isn't used more throughout the remainder of the bible (books after the books of Acts)?

Huh?

 ???


One entry found for pluperfect.
 

Main Entry: plu·per·fect
Pronunciation: "plü-'p&r-fikt
Function: adjective
Etymology: Middle English pluperfyth, modification of Late Latin plusquamperfectus, literally, more than perfect
1 : PAST PERFECT
2 : utterly perfect or complete
- pluperfect noun  

Merriam-Webster Online Dictionary.

Pluperfect tense, ("v_ plup.act.ind.3.sg.") is used 44 times in the following verse according to "WillGreek".

Acts 21:26.  Then Paul took the men, and the next day purifying himself with them entered into the temple, to signify the accomplishment of the days of purification, until that an offering should be offered for every one of them.

Of what relevance is this question?
Someone wanting to know why the pluperfect tense is not used more than in three verses after Acts?

Perhaps WillGreek is going to clue us in to this snowjobbie?

Come on WillGreek, give us a clue?

 ;D

 Ollie !

"Etymology: Middle English pluperfyth, modification of Late Latin plusquamperfectus, literally, more than perfect"

 This is no way to  talk to a lady.  ;)

ROFL!  
(http://www.feebleminds-gifs.com/jump3.gif)
 :-X

What can I say? That you are plupperperfect?

I certainly agree, and it has my friend all upset and ready to attack:


This guy's first two posts were even more pluperfect. They were moved to the theology area, and this one will probably be moved also unless the author comes back and gives us some more pluperfect information about what he's attempting to do.   :D

Love In Christ,
Tom

 :)agrees GEP. When and if i should ever use any form of Greek terms & their function in a context, i will define those terms as simple as possible, so that what is being presented in context becomes clearly understood. Facts & figures are good to know in their place, but we must convey the point we are making plainly since most Bible students are not grounded in greek studies! ;)

Come on guys.  He's asking a sincere Greek question, but perhaps to the wrong group of scholars, myself included.  He's asking why this particular usage/tense only appears so few times.  The Pluperfect tense...


As for the other verb tenses he's listed:

plup.act.ind - is Pluperfect Active Indicative, though the 1, 2, 3 sg's I'm uncertain.  My Greek-speak is rusty!  :D

plup.pas.ind - is Pluperfect Passive Indicative

plup.mid.ind - I believe is the middle tense, or Pluperfect Middle Indicative

Is that all Greek to you? *L* Me too!  The gist is that in the koine Greek, the tenses were much more expressive than we seem to have today.  That is, we have the tense usages, we just are simpler in our applications, or use more words to express the concept.

I've done little to explain, I'm sure.  And Will?  I dunno why.  Seems to me that it is issue oriented though.  That is, God in His infinite wisdom and sovereignty has done some things in the past, that He has enacted, is enacting, and will continue to enact until He's done.  Such things, I believe are related to our end result.  The bulk tenses used reflect the sanctifying work or the Holy Spirit and the word of God in our lives.  The pluperfect tenses relate to the end product via the current means.  Make sense?  If so...explain it to me?   :D

pluperfect tense
A verb tense used to express action completed before a stated or implied past time. In English the pluperfect tense is formed with the past participle of a verb and the auxiliary verb had, as had learned in He had learned to skate before his fourth birthday.

Oklahoma Howdy to WillGreek,

Most of us here are just plain folks who love the Lord and His Word.

I have seen a past participle once, but I knew it had passed on and buried it.   :D  We have some intellectuals here who could stay with you easily, but we come here to relax and fellowship in Christ.

Love In Christ,
Tom

This is no way to  talk to a lady.

LOL!

I have seen a past participle once, but I knew it had passed on and buried it.  

I`m with you Tom!

1Jo 2:19  They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us: but they went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us.

Rev 7:11  And all the angels stood round about the throne, and about the elders and the four beasts, and fell before the throne on their faces, and worshipped God,

(stood as opposed to "were standing"? - fell and worshipped - being past tense verbs?)

Rom 7:7  What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.

had not known sin
had not known lust
shalt not covet

Well, this is beyond me. It's been about 35 years since I've even tried to grammatically analyze a sentence....

What was the point of this exercise again?

Oh yes - why wasn't this verb tense used in the remainder of the bible following the book of Acts, excepting those scriptures noted?

Well, okay - I give up. WHY?

(http://www.smiliegenerator.de/s22/smilies-26652.png)

Will knowing all this Greek grammar construction change one's relationship with God and His Christ?.
 It probably is an interesting facet of study if one has an interest in such.

Has anyone figured out the answer to the lead in question of why the pluperfect tense is used only in three verses after Acts?
Is this important to know in order to live Godly?

Thanks WillGreek for clearing away the snow somewhat and also giving an example of pluperfect.

Ollie

If my salvation depended on grammar i would be in hell already :P


 All kidding aside i hope he finds some one to converse with

Yes.  

Thank God for the simplicity of the Gospel! Even a little child can understand it.

Spiritual truths are spiritually discerned and we have the unction(anointing) that leads us into all truth from God Himself. (1 John 2:20,27) A knowledge of greek or hebrew is not necessary. If one is a theologian or greek scholar and wishes to explore the depths of language, that is fine. but it is unnecessary to understnad and know the will and voice of God.

One example- there is a voluminous body of literature and all sorts of commenraries exploring the meanings of the single preposition "eis." The reason us that the entire doctrine of "Baptismal regeneration" depends upon how it is translated in Acts 2:38. It is waste of time and effort, unless of course, one translates it correctly and destroys that doctrine. Unfortunately, all that will do is to cause the adherents of the error to make up some more scholasticism in their support.

aw

exactly  (http://www.click-smilies.de/sammlung0903/sprachlos/speechless-smiley-021.gif)