Error in Doctrine

[ollie]

Can a Christian be in error on doctrine and still be saved?

2 John 9 states: "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and Son."

This verse tells us that if one sins to where one is no longer abiding in Christ's doctrine, he no longer has God. So how can one still be saved if one doesn't have God?

Many people today believe that error in doctrine does not cause a loss of salvation. This verse clearly says that we must abide in the doctrine of Christ to have both the Father and the Son.  Without the Father and the Son there is not any salvation.

The conclusion being that error in doctrine which is not Christ's doctrine can remove one from God's grace which gives
salvation.

2 John is addressing the elect lady and her children, (the church), in this letter and it is they, he is telling, that can transgess and abideth not in Christ's doctrine,  In verse 8 tells them: "Look to yourselves that we lose not those things which we have wrought, but that we receive a full reward." Then goes on to the verse quoted previously.

This all comes about as a warning and admonition about deceivers not believing Jesus Christ has come in the flesh.
Verse 7.

[Sower]

2 John 9 states: "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and Son."

Ollie:

This verse is not speaking about all Christian doctrines, but about one specific doctrine: "the doctrine of Christ".

This doctrine states that the Word of God, who is indeed the LORD God Almighty,  became flesh and manifested the Father to the world as Jesus of Nazareth.  That He died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and rose again the third day according to the Scriptures to give us the gift of eternal life. That Christ is God our Saviour, and that it is His blood and His righteousness that saves us.

Those who reject the Deity of Christ, that he is fully God and fully sinless Man, the finished work of Christ on the Cross, and His resurrection as Lord and Savior, are not, and cannot be saved.  That is the message of this verse.

There have been numerous heresies since the beginning challenging or denying these truths.  It is these heretics who are being addressed.  See 1 Jn. 4:1-3. These heretics (Jehovah's Witnesses for example) must neither be invited into your home, nor must you wish them God speed (2 Jn. 10). Seventh Day Adventists believe that Christ did not finish His redemptive work on the cross.  They also fall into this category.

[John1one]

Greetings,
I don't mean to be argumentative, but I do have another view. I believe the "DOCTRINE OF CHRIST" has to do with verse 7 - "the coming of Christ in the flesh." Let me quote the Scripture here so the context would be clear.

2 John 1:7  For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist. 8  Look to yourselves, that we lose not those things which we have wrought, but that we receive a full reward. 9  Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

Notice that John calls the one who does not "confess" that Jesus Christ "is come in the flesh" a "deceiver" and an "antichrist." The problem, as I see it, is that many of our translations (including my favorite - the KJV)  do not translate the clause "is come in the flesh" properly.

The Greek verb, Erchomai 'to come' (S.2064) is in the Present Passive Middle Participle and should be translated "coming" rather than is come. The NEB does translate it this way. I believe the sense is that he who does not teach that Jesus Christ is coming in OUR flesh, is a deceiver and an antichrist.

An antichrist is anyone who opposes Christ. That is, someone who does not allow a person to be dependant upon Christ who is within the believer. There are several denominations and radio and TV evangelists that put a great deal of stress upon their own doctrine, not permitting their fellowship/followers to question their teachings or policies. In other words, they demand total acceptance of what they say without giving a thought to what that "still small voice" within us is saying. This is opposing the leadership of Christ. Notice what Paul says in Colossians:

Colossians 2:18  Let no man beguile you of your reward in a voluntary humility and worshipping of angels, intruding into those things which he hath not seen, vainly puffed up by his fleshly mind, 19  And not holding the Head, from which all the body by joints and bands having nourishment ministered, and knit together, increaseth with the increase of God.

The words "worshipping of angels" might be better translated worshipping of messengers to include men who go about teaching their own doctrine and demanding that their followers believe their every word. Notice how they are "vainly puffed up by their fleshy mind." In verse 19 it is said that they are not "holding to the Head" who is Christ. It is He who nourishes and builds up the Body, not men. Men at best are obedient messengers.

Coming back to 2John 1:9, those who "transgress" the "doctrine" of Christ are those who abandon the teaching that Christ is coming within each of His followers. Once a deceiver gets his victim to look to him instead of HE WHO IS WITHIN, it leaves the believer dependant upon man instead of his/her Head who is Christ. This is a deceiver and an ANTICHRIST.

Just another thought.

Have a great day, and God bless,

John1one

[Sower]

Coming back to 2John 1:9, those who "transgress" the "doctrine" of Christ are those who abandon the teaching that Christ is coming within each of His followers. Once a deceiver gets his victim to look to him instead of HE WHO IS WITHIN, it leaves the believer dependant upon man instead of his/her Head who is Christ. This is a deceiver and an ANTICHRIST.

John1one:

There's a serious flaw in your interpretation. You have not connected it with 1 John 4:1-3. This has nothing to do with Christ coming into the believer but Christ coming into the world as fully God and fully Man: "Every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ IS COME IN THE FLESH is not of God: and this is the Spirit of anti-christ" (v. 3).

To clarify this one must go back to John 1:14,18: "And the Word WAS MADE FLESH and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth...No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, He hath declared Him".

Almost from the beginning there were various Gnostic heresies which perverted the truth about the eternality and deity of Christ, as well as His two natures. Arianism, Sabellianism, Monarchianism, Socinianism etc. all have to do with this. Today's Jehovah's Witnesses, Christadelphians, Mormons, etc. repeated the same heresies.

You novel intreprtation is misleading since the focus of the doctrine of Christ is Christ, not Christ in the believer.

[Allinall]

Ollie,

I won't go into great detail as I believe Sower has more than sufficiently covered this question, but I did want to add one point.  You asked...

Can a Christian be in error on doctrine and still be saved?

2 John 9 states: "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and Son."

This verse tells us that if one sins to where one is no longer abiding in Christ's doctrine, he no longer has God. So how can one still be saved if one doesn't have God?

This verse isn't a conditional verse, but a positional verse.  That is to say, the one who transgresses this doctrine and doesn't abide therein doesn't lose God, but never had God.

[John1one]

Greetings Sower,
I believe in the deity of Christ and have defended this doctrine on other forums, but I don't believe that these verses in 1John and 2John have anything to do with defending His deity except indirectly. That is, why would He be IN us if He were not God? Why would an angel or any other being have such a universal effect upon man's salvation?

Let me explain why I believe that these verses do not have the meaning that you claim. 1 John 4:3 "And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world."

The verb "is come" is in the perfect participle active and should be translated "having come" according to my Greek morphological tool. If this word were to give the meaning that you claim, it would have to be in the aorist tense showing that it was an action that took place at one time in the past. That is Christ came in the flesh and does not have to become flesh again. Nevertheless, this is not the case. The perfect tense indicates an action or more correctly a process that took place in the past, but is having an effect in the present. An example of what I mean would be in Mark 5:34 "Daughter thy faith has made thee whole." Though the action takes place at one time, its effect continues on. Secondly, you will notice that the verb in 1John 4:3 "is come" is in the active voice. The Greek has an active, middle and  passive voices. Let me show you what I mean. 1Corinthians 13:12 has all three:

1 Corinthians 13:12  "For now we see through a glass, darkly; but then face to face: now I know in part; but then shall I know even as also I am known."

Each of the above clauses are in the order: active, middle and passive respectively. "I know" is what Paul is doing at the present when he is speaking. This is in the active voice. "Shall I know" is in the middle voice and indicates an action upon himself, that is he is going to know something about himself that he doesn't know at the time he is speaking. The middle voice expresses an activity that the subject does upon itself. John 1:14 indicates such an activity "the Word became flesh." The verb here is in the middle voice. It expresses the subject acting in some way upon himself. Jesus was involved in His becoming flesh (Philippians 2:6-8). The third clause above is in the passive voice and represents the subject receiving the action.

What I am trying to express is that if 1John 4:3 is meant for us to believe that "is come" means Christ becoming flesh, it would have to be in the middle voice, just as it is in John 1:14. In fact John 1:14 is in the aorist tense, middle voice; just as I indicated above that "is come" should be in 1John 4:3, if it should mean what you claim. It is not, however, and must indicate something else.

I am aware of the fact that there were many Gnostic elements present when John wrote his books. Some denied that Jesus was God, that God became flesh, or claimed that God was three modes instead of three Persons; but this is not what this verse is defending against. Personally, I believe it is defending against the Nicolaitan heresy (Revelation 2:6, 15) that really has never been effectively addressed in Christianity. The Nicolaitans were leaders with a deity complex. They lorded it over the people. This exists in every denomination today, and in many cases (but not all) is responsible for the denomination's coming to be.

If the believer would trust Christ within him rather than looking for men to teach and lead him, we would all still be one body, rather than the mass of schisms we see today; each one claiming to have the correct form of truth taught by Christ. Difference of opinion can exist within the Body of Christ without dividing up the body of believers. You and I disagree, yet I believe we would have no problem worshipping together.

Sower, I am willing to believe I am wrong here, but so far you have not presented a convincing case. As I understand the "Bible helps" I have been given, what you say about these verses cannot be true. Nevertheless, I am willing to be wrong, if you can prove it.

Have a evening and God bless,

John1one

[John the Baptist]

Hi, John here:

What is your take on Rev. 18:4? For just starters. No. There is no way that any one that [*REALY] BELIEVES in Christ would Violate this verse for any length of time without grieving or quenching the Holy Spirit away! If one is convicted of the doctrinal error?

Yet, how could any one today with the extra increased knowledge, even be in ignorance except by being the Lukewarm sickening 'BELIEVERS' of Rev. 3:16-17? And then reject 'Increased' knowledge & be lost as seen in Hosea 4:6?? (try Matt. 4:4?)

Or unless they Really Believe yet are seen as the ones of John 12:42-43, then they are told that they are of the PARTAKERS FATE!  ! Try Obadia 16.

---John
******

Can a Christian be in error on doctrine and still be saved?

2 John 9 states: "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and Son."

This verse tells us that if one sins to where one is no longer abiding in Christ's doctrine, he no longer has God. So how can one still be saved if one doesn't have God?

Many people today believe that error in doctrine does not cause a loss of salvation. This verse clearly says that we must abide in the doctrine of Christ to have both the Father and the Son.  Without the Father and the Son there is not any salvation.

The conclusion being that error in doctrine which is not Christ's doctrine can remove one from God's grace which gives
salvation.

2 John is addressing the elect lady and her children, (the church), in this letter and it is they, he is telling, that can transgess and abideth not in Christ's doctrine,  In verse 8 tells them: "Look to yourselves that we lose not those things which we have wrought, but that we receive a full reward." Then goes on to the verse quoted previously.

This all comes about as a warning and admonition about deceivers not believing Jesus Christ has come in the flesh.
Verse 7.

[ollie]

2 John 9 states: "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and Son."

Ollie:

This verse is not speaking about all Christian doctrines, but about one specific doctrine: "the doctrine of Christ".

This doctrine states that the Word of God, who is indeed the LORD God Almighty,  became flesh and manifested the Father to the world as Jesus of Nazareth.  That He died for our sins according to the Scriptures, and that He was buried, and rose again the third day according to the Scriptures to give us the gift of eternal life. That Christ is God our Saviour, and that it is His blood and His righteousness that saves us.

Those who reject the Deity of Christ, that he is fully God and fully sinless Man, the finished work of Christ on the Cross, and His resurrection as Lord and Savior, are not, and cannot be saved.  That is the message of this verse.

There have been numerous heresies since the beginning challenging or denying these truths.  It is these heretics who are being addressed.  See 1 Jn. 4:1-3. These heretics (Jehovah's Witnesses for example) must neither be invited into your home, nor must you wish them God speed (2 Jn. 10). Seventh Day Adventists believe that Christ did not finish His redemptive work on the cross.  They also fall into this category.

What other "Christian doctrines" are there? Other than Christ's?

[ollie]

Ollie,

I won't go into great detail as I believe Sower has more than sufficiently covered this question, but I did want to add one point.  You asked...

Can a Christian be in error on doctrine and still be saved?

2 John 9 states: "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and Son."

This verse tells us that if one sins to where one is no longer abiding in Christ's doctrine, he no longer has God. So how can one still be saved if one doesn't have God?

This verse isn't a conditional verse, but a positional verse.  That is to say, the one who transgresses this doctrine and doesn't abide therein doesn't lose God, but never had God.

The verse does not say, " never had God", It says, "hath not God", and it is addressed to the elect lady and her children, not the unfaithful.

[John the Baptist]

Hi Ollie, John here:
No is the answer to your question on one staying with known false doctrine.

Read 2 Tim. 3:16 for the answer of not only (any) DOCTRINE, but for what John meant in 2 John 1:*6-11. (notice verse 6 is left out of most thoughts on this, take a guess why?) But doctrine MUST be forumlated by ALL SCRIPTURE, all 66 bks. are needed. The Doctrine of Christ surely would include at least other of John Inspiration! (see 1 John 2:4) But that still is not enough!

Paul states, "And the spirits of the prophets [ARE SUBJECT TO THE PROPHETS]." 1 Cor. 14:32 Do you have this 'belief' in the Master? Paul was in the N.T. talking about even more O.T. prophets! Try Isa. 42:21 & Isa. 8:20 for 'false doctrine's testing'!

And in Matt. 4:4 Christ who is surely more accurate in His Words than even John, tells us a Everlasting Gospel Truth!
'Man does not live by bread alone, BUT BY EVERY WORD THAT PROCEEDETH OUT OF THE MOUTH OF GOD". (all of the 66 books) One such WORD is seen below.

So you can read Rev. 18:4 'prayerfully' & without ANY of mans professed wisdom, or mans inspirational 'false doctrine', AND KNOW THAT THE VERSE IS TRUTH & that you have a correct ANSWER TO YOUR QUESTION ...*FROM GOD HIMSELF!
AND THE VERSE? It IS A FATAL ETERNAL DECISION TO MAKE!!

---John

[Petro]

Let's see,


2 Jhn 1
9  Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

I don't know how anyone could question the teaching (doctrine) of the verse; hath not God, sounds pretty definitive to me, this means  this person, whoever it might be does not possess;

God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.

Now I suppose everyone who has a problem with this verse, has to define what the doctrine of Christ is.

Maybe they could find it in the OT scriptures.

Without spending alot of time trying to do this I would say off the top of my head, His teachings would be central to the idea of identifying His doctrine. Since doctrine is defined as; teaching tenets, or principles of the faith.

Having said that, now allow me to point to JESUS own words;

Jhn 10
25  ..............  told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
26  But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you..
27  My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:.
28  And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand..
29  My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand..
30  I and my Father are one..

Is it not the fathers will, that these be saved eternally, whom he gives to Jesus??

NOW, since there are some that teach, and have deceived many into believing that man can lose his free gift (of salvation), if he transgresses the law, how does this square up with Jesus's doctrine herein, ?

Especially, when the Apostles and elders at the first council of Jerusalem, confirmed it was not necessary to keep the Law of Moses and be circumsiced. (Acts 15)

It would seem to me Christians, who have fallen for this doctrine, which is contrary to Jesus's doctrinal teachings, need to evaluate, the doctrine they claim to be of Jesus.

Especially, since the next two verse, are very clear;

10  If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed:
11  For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds.

This includes internet visitors, heh..

Blessings,

Petro

[John the Baptist]

*********************
Let's 'see',  
Hi, John here:
You say, "I don't know how anyone 'could' question the (doctrine) of the verse:" Well lets test that by another of John's verses, ok?

1 Jn. 4:6 says: "WE ARE OF GOD: HE THAT KNOWETH GOD HEARETH US; HE THAT IS NOT OF GOD HEARETH NOT US. HEREBY KNOW WE THE SPIRIT OF TRUTH AND THE SPIRIT OF ERROR."

If you are telling 'us' that the doctrine of Christ is contained in 2 John 1:9-11, instead of 'eternity' then your posting to me at least, [IS] SPIRITUALLY ludicrous. (No personal offence intended) Korah must have thought that the whole congregation was holy & that God WAS AMONG them also? You know, your missive of the DOCTRINE OF CHRIST? See Num. 16:1-3.  

And about your questioning  of law? (s) Which ones do you want to void out or END at Christ's death, ALL LAWS? Or just the Everlasting Covenant, perhaps? (Heb. 13:20) Or the 'DOCTRINE OF CHRIST' that is ALSO THE DOCTRINE OF THE EVERLASTING GOSPEL AND IS THE LAW OF THE UNIVERSE? (ROYAL LAW of James 2:8-12)

By the way forum: Everlasting in these settings are ETERNAL! We say that we are [BELIEVERS]
huh?

It is no wonder that Christ ask's that when He comes the second time, "WILL HE FIND FAITH ON EARTH?"
BELIEVING HIS WORDS--*ALL OF THEM. Again Matt. 4:4 & 2 Tim. 3:16, Isa. 8:20 , 1 John 2:4,>>BELIEVE, IS FAITH!! But instead He finds???

Another VITAL verse for understanding the DOCTRINE OF CHRIST is Isa. 42:21!

Now: 'i' agree with the conclussion of 2 John 1:9's bottom line ENDING, that of the rejection of the Master's Doctrine. (See Heb. 6:6) Yet, the very singularing out of the verse alone proves that the poster of the verse's [message] is IN THIS deep trouble! The message VOID'S out Matt. 4:4's Truth by believing a 'faith' (?) of 'once saved always saved', of course it could be that the one is as John says, "HATH NOT GOD" to begin with? . And yes, the Master's Word ASSURES us that one of the two conclusions at least are certain possibilites!

Forum: If 'one' is totally sincere? Read all of the chapter of 1 John 1 & 2. Remember verses 7 & 8 of chapter one, and also verse 24-25 of chapter 2. (This is ETERNAL Truth that is to '*REMAIN IN YOU' for the Promise to be fulfilled)

---John
******


2 Jhn 1
9  Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.

I don't know how anyone could question the teaching (doctrine) of the verse; hath not God, sounds pretty definitive to me, this means  this person, whoever it might be does not possess;

God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit.

Now I suppose everyone who has a problem with this verse, has to define what the doctrine of Christ is.

Maybe they could find it in the OT scriptures.

Without spending alot of time trying to do this I would say off the top of my head, His teachings would be central to the idea of identifying His doctrine. Since doctrine is defined as; teaching tenets, or principles of the faith.

Having said that, now allow me to point to JESUS own words;

Jhn 10
25  ..............  told you, and ye believed not: the works that I do in my Father's name, they bear witness of me.
26  But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you..
27  My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:.
28  And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand..
29  My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand..
30  I and my Father are one..

Is it not the fathers will, that these be saved eternally, whom he gives to Jesus??

NOW, since there are some that teach, and have deceived many into believing that man can lose his free gift (of salvation), if he transgresses the law, how does this square up with Jesus's doctrine herein, ?

Especially, when the Apostles and elders at the first council of Jerusalem, confirmed it was not necessary to keep the Law of Moses and be circumsiced. (Acts 15)

It would seem to me Christians, who have fallen for this doctrine, which is contrary to Jesus's doctrinal teachings, need to evaluate, the doctrine they claim to be of Jesus.

Especially, since the next two verse, are very clear;

10  If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed:
11  For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds.

This includes internet visitors, heh..

Blessings,

Petro

[Petro]

Well, lets see if this is true..


"............................the doctrine of Christ"[/b]

I suppose one should understand what it is, before he can determine, what this verse is speaking of.

Please note, the word "doctrine" is singular and used in the present tense.

I see the previous poster, misunderstands what that doctrine is.

Let me say that the "doctrine" of Christ, as taught in this verse, is principle to who Christ is, and although He himself confirms this doctrine, the doctrine itself concerning Him, is found in the OT.

Every person, will live or die, as a result of the doctrine of Christ.

So what is the, doctrine of Christ??

Petro

[Tawhano]

leqach {leh'-kakh}
1) learning, teaching, insight
a) instruction (obj)
b) teaching (thing taught)
1) teaching-power
2) persuasiveness

didache {did-akh-ay'}
1) teaching
a) that which is taught
b) doctrine, teaching, concerning something
2) the act of teaching, instruction
a) in religious assemblies of the Christians, to speak in the way of teaching, in distinction from other modes of speaking in public

The doctrine is the teachings of Christ, the commandment he gave that all who believe on him should do. The answer to these questions Ollie and Petro ask are in the very verses Ollie quoted from (2John 1). If you do not keep His commandments then you are without love and you are none of His.

What is the Doctrine of Christ?

Matthew 22
37   Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
38   This is the first and great commandment.
39   And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
40   On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.

2 John 1
5   And now I beseech thee, lady, not as though I wrote a new commandment unto thee, but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another.
6   And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.

[John the Baptist]

OK: John here, so seeing that we seem to agree on the eternity of the Gospel & the eternity of the Godheads Eternal Covenant Character being the same, His Moral law of Love. (You know forum ) GOD IS LOVE! (Epistle of 2 Cor. 3:3)

Then tell us all the 'very simple' Truth of Isaiah 42:21's ( )meaning, and how this was done? (not as in finished, huh? )
By the way thanks for your 'work' of love!

---John
******

leqach {leh'-kakh}
1) learning, teaching, insight
a) instruction (obj)
b) teaching (thing taught)
1) teaching-power
2) persuasiveness

didache {did-akh-ay'}
1) teaching
a) that which is taught
b) doctrine, teaching, concerning something
2) the act of teaching, instruction
a) in religious assemblies of the Christians, to speak in the way of teaching, in distinction from other modes of speaking in public

The doctrine is the teachings of Christ, the commandment he gave that all who believe on him should do. The answer to these questions Ollie and Petro ask are in the very verses Ollie quoted from (2John 1). If you do not keep His commandments then you are without love and you are none of His.

What is the Doctrine of Christ?

Matthew 22
37   Jesus said unto him, Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind.
38   This is the first and great commandment.
39   And the second is like unto it, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
40   On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets.

2 John 1
5   And now I beseech thee, lady, not as though I wrote a new commandment unto thee, but that which we had from the beginning, that we love one another.
6   And this is love, that we walk after his commandments. This is the commandment, That, as ye have heard from the beginning, ye should walk in it.