A good summary and it is interesting you decide to go to man's definitions of terms rather than address the scriptures referenced in those posts.
Thank you.
First, the scriptures referenced do not contain the words "free" or "gift". Secondly, they have been addressed before (by others), while the scriptures that do reference free and gift have been ignored by you. Tit for tat.
Not only that, but it is not even clear what man you rely on or consider as authoritative for your definitions as this is important in determining any hidden biases.
Ahhhh....an oblique character assination fallacy coupled with an intimation of unjustifiable bias. Rofl.
Merriam-Webster.....and if you care to delve more deeply, every major dictionary of the English language carries the same information, albeit in different orders. Are you accusing all dictionary publishers of hidden biases?
But the main issue you fail to recognize is how ethnocentric your analysis is. If you step back for a moment you may be able to see how it focuses on the English definitions of English translations of mainly Greek terms.
A perfect expression of what I meant when I said "semantically challenged". What you fail to recognize is that when speaking (or writing) in English to another, and using specific terms to explain something (such as free and gift), then one automatically chooses to abide by the defining terms of those words. If you want to converse in Greek, then speak in Greek. Besides, the analysis is "Christocentric", not ethno.
In other languages you would not be able to make the same literal argument you make here and an argument that cannot cross the lines of various languages is not a logically sound one.
In other languages (some) the same literal argument can be made, and you fail to prove that it can't. Further, it is incumbent on you to prove your contention that "an argument that cannot cross the lives of various languages is not a logically sound one", which you fail to do so here.
Finally, as I show below the Greek terms translated as free in the English translations of the scriptures does not mean precisely the same as the literal spin you attempt to put on it in your analysis.
If you do an actual study of the word free in the New Testament you will see that it is only used 31 times some of which can be argued do not refer to salvation even indirectly.
You will also see that the Greek terms translated as free in the New Testament are;
eleurberoo meaning to liberate and not necessarily with out conditions. (Strongs 1659 used 18 times)
and
eleurberos meaning unrestrained again not a position that necessarily is with out conditions. (Strongs 1658 used 6 times)
and
charisma when refering to a gift (often translated as free gift) but more precisely meaning divine gratuity or deliverance from danger. so we see the free is inserted by the translators, which is fine as long as one understands it is not a rigorous, literal meaning of the English word free. (Strongs 5486 appears only twice in Rom 5:15 and Rom 5:16)
The other five times the word "free" appears in the KJV of the New Testament it is inserted by the translators without the Greek even having a word present to be translated.
So it is clear the literal use of the strictest definition of the English word free is never intended or supportable by the Greek, it was just the best word the translators had for the purpose and therefore your careful but seriously English Anglo-Saxon biased analysis is not applicable.
Interesting spin. Let's just examine some usage.
Rom 5:15 But not as the offence, so also [is] the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, [which is] by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
charisma
1) a favour with which one receives without any merit of his own
2) the gift of divine grace
3) the gift of faith, knowledge, holiness, virtue
4) the economy of divine grace, by which the pardon of sin and eternal salvation is appointed to sinners in consideration of the merits of Christ laid hold of by faith
5) grace or gifts denoting extraordinary powers, distinguishing certain Christians and enabling them to serve the church of Christ, the reception of which is due to the power of divine grace operating on
their souls by the Holy Spirit
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Rom 5:16 And not as [it was] by one that sinned, [so is] the gift:
dorema
1) a gift, bounty, benefaction
for the judgment [was] by one to condemnation, but the free gift (charisma) [is] of many offences unto justification.
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Rom 5:17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift (dorea) of righteousness (dikaiosune: the state of one acceptable to God) shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
Rom 5:18 Therefore as by the offence of one [judgment came] upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one [the free gift came] upon all men unto justification of life.
Isn't it interesting that the context and usage of both free, and gift, is exactly (literally) as originally postulated?
Further, in the other instances involving the use of "free"
eleutheros
1) freeborn
a) in a civil sense, one who is not a slave
b) of one who ceases to be a slave, freed, manumitted
2) free, exempt, unrestrained, not bound by an obligation
3) in an ethical sense: free from the yoke of the Mosaic Law
the primary context and usage is parallel to definition 2 (free, exempt, unrestrained,
not bound by an obligation.
Lastly, even in American English usage a gift can have conditions upon it to retain it and not change it from free to merited or earned.
Your following example, which I suppose is your attempt to prove this assertion, is interesting. And, as noted before in another thread, the difference would be two fold. First, it's "...interesting you decide to go to man's definitions of terms..." to make a point. At this juncture, it would appear to be somewhat hypocritical on your part. Nevertheless, consider....if I were a caring and loving father, like my Father in heaven is, then I would
securely tie the balloon to the child so that there would be no chance of them letting go of it, thus
assuring their continued happiness with the balloon I
gave them.
If I give a child a helium balloon and tell them to hold on tight and don't let go there is suddenly a condition on their keeping the gift. But these conditions do not make the gift any less free - ask any caring loving father or their child and they will tell you.
Thanks for the instruction, but being a grandfather 14 times over, I don't need to ask either a child or a neophyte father how to give a balloon....or any other gift....which by definition, is freely given.