Satanic Holy Days

[Sulfurdolphin]

 This is to long to paste so i will give out the website.

The Mystery of Iniquity

 The Feast of Trumpets and the Rapture

or

What are Christian Holidays?


http://www.michaelrood.com/satanic.htm


http://www.michaelrood.com/#

[Brother Love]

Thanks for posting, but I do NOT agree with the message.

[Pastor Roger]

I disagree with this also. Easter is approximately the time of passover. I say approximately, due to the difference in the Hebrew calendar and the gregorian calendar. It was decided to celebrate Easter in remembrance of Jesus Christ as this was also the approximate time of His being placed on the cross and rose from the grave. The last supper was held during passover.

[ollie]

There are not any holy days in Christ. There can be the day one is made holy in Christ.

ollie

[Shylynne]

There are not any holy days in Christ. There can be the day one is made holy in Christ.

ollie

what ollie said  

[Pastor Roger]

Now I must agree with that Ollie. Amen!

[Chesed]

Hi y'all -

Ollie you said -

There are not any holy days in Christ. There can be the day one is made holy in Christ.

My question for you is who authored the Bible? I think we can both agree that God is the author. And Jesus being One with God is the author of the Bible, which contains this verse: Gensis 2:3 Then God blessed the seventh day and sanctified it (made it holy), because in it He rested from all His work which God had created and made."

Here are some other references to days made Holy by the Lord:

Le 23:3 For six days work may be done, but on the seventh day there is a sabbath of complete rest, a holy convocation. You shall not do any work; it is a sabbath to the LORD in all your dwellings.

Le 23:7 On the first day you shall have a holy convocation; you shall not do any laborious work.

Le 23:8 But for seven days you shall present an offering by fire to the LORD. On the seventh day is a holy convocation; you shall not do any laborious work.' "

Le 23:21 On this same day you shall make a proclamation as well; you are to have a holy convocation. You shall do no laborious work. It is to be a perpetual statute in all your dwelling places throughout your generations.

Le 23:24 Speak to the sons of Israel, saying, 'In the seventh month on the first of the month you shall have a rest, a reminder by blowing {of trumpets,} a holy convocation.

Le 23:27 On exactly the tenth day of this seventh month is the day of atonement; it shall be a holy convocation for you, and you shall humble your souls and present an offering by fire to the LORD.

Le 23:35 On the first day is a holy convocation; you shall do no laborious work of any kind.

Le 23:36  For seven days you shall present an offering by fire to the LORD. On the eighth day you shall have a holy convocation and present an offering by fire to the LORD; it is an assembly. You shall do no laborious work.

Nu 28:18 On the first day {shall be} a holy convocation; you shall do no laborious work.

Nu 28:25 On the seventh day you shall have a holy convocation; you shall do no laborious work.

Nu 28:26 Also on the day of the first fruits, when you present a new grain offering to the LORD in your {Feast of} Weeks, you shall have a holy convocation; you shall do no laborious work.

Nu 29:1 - Now in the seventh month, on the first day of the month, you shall also have a holy convocation; you shall do no laborious work. It will be to you a day for blowing trumpets.

Nu 29:7 Then on the tenth day of this seventh month you shall have a holy convocation, and you shall humble yourselves; you shall not do any work.

Nu 29:12 Then on the fifteenth day of the seventh month you shall have a holy convocation; you shall do no laborious work, and you shall observe a feast to the LORD for seven days.
 
***


So Jesus the Messiah, who authored the Bible declared holy days. When Jesus was on earth He kept these Holy days.

What was Jesus doing when He said, "This is My body which is given for you; do this in remembrance of Me (Lu 22:19)."
He was partaking in the Passover. The "this" in the sentence refers to a specific part of the Passover meal.

Paul also says, (Corinthians 5:7-8) Clean out the old leaven so that you may be a new lump, just as you are in fact unleavened. For Christ our Passover also has been sacrificed. 8 Therefore let us celebrate the feast, not with old leaven, nor with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

The Biblical Festivals have everything to do with God's plan of redemption through Messiah. We have every reason to enjoy them. Christmas and easter are so comercialized. When I celebrated them as a child, it was hard to focus on Messiah and His life, death and resurrection. It was all about Santa Claus, Chocolates, presents, presents and more presents!

My pastor says, "You will never see a Passover edition of Playboy magazine."

[ollie]

Luke 16:16.  "The law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presseth into it."


 Romans 3:20.  "Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
 21.  But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
 22.  Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:"

ollie

[Chesed]

Hi there Ollie -

In answer to my previous post, you quoted Luke 16:16. I believe that you are misunderstanding this verse. It is wrong to interpret this verse as saying the Law and the Prophets are abolished because of John the immerser. Consider the very following verse: Lu 16:17 "But it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one stroke of a letter of the Law to become void." So verse 16 certainly doesn't mean that the Law and the Prophets were done with, as we can see by the following verse.

Then you continued by quoting:

Romans 3:20.  "Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Yes, no one is justified by any law keeping, only by the blood of Jesus. I think we agree there.

21.  But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

So what is this righteousness of God without the works of the Law to which the Law and the Prophets testify? If you are trying to say that this verse means that the Law is done away with, then how is this righteousness witnessed by the Law and the Prophets? Where in the Law and the Prophets does it say that the commandments therein were only for a time, until the Messiah came and "finished" them? All throughout the Law and the Prophets it talks about the commandments being an Eternal Covenant (you can do a word search on the word "eternal" in the OT, I will spare you from having to read such a long post   )

And obviously, what Paul is saying here in Romans 3 is not at odds with the Law because he later says: "Do we then nullify the Law through faith? May it never be! On the contrary, we establish the Law. (verse 3:31).

I think what Paul is dealing with here and also in Galatians is the issue of circumcising Gentile believers in Messiah, which is the same as becoming a Jew. We know that some were trying to persuade the Gentiles to become Jews by being ritually circumcised, joining "the circumcision group" (see Ro. 15:8, Gal. 2:12, Eph. 2:11) and to obey all the Law (Acts 15, all the Law included Rabbinic Law as well.) Paul is establishing the fact that Gentiles are saved by faith in Messiah, not by becoming ritually circumcised (Jewish). There is nothing in all the Law and Prophets that calls for Gentiles to become Jews in order to be acceptable to God. God says the same Law He gave to Israel also applies to the Gentiles who identify with Israel (Ex 12:49).

Take care -
Chesed

[BigD]

Hi there Ollie -

In answer to my previous post, you quoted Luke 16:16. I believe that you are misunderstanding this verse. It is wrong to interpret this verse as saying the Law and the Prophets are abolished because of John the immerser. Consider the very following verse: Lu 16:17 "But it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one stroke of a letter of the Law to become void." So verse 16 certainly doesn't mean that the Law and the Prophets were done with, as we can see by the following verse.

Then you continued by quoting:

Romans 3:20.  "Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Yes, no one is justified by any law keeping, only by the blood of Jesus. I think we agree there.

21.  But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

So what is this righteousness of God without the works of the Law to which the Law and the Prophets testify? If you are trying to say that this verse means that the Law is done away with, then how is this righteousness witnessed by the Law and the Prophets? Where in the Law and the Prophets does it say that the commandments therein were only for a time, until the Messiah came and "finished" them? All throughout the Law and the Prophets it talks about the commandments being an Eternal Covenant (you can do a word search on the word "eternal" in the OT, I will spare you from having to read such a long post  ;) )

And obviously, what Paul is saying here in Romans 3 is not at odds with the Law because he later says: "Do we then nullify the Law through faith? May it never be! On the contrary, we establish the Law. (verse 3:31).

I think what Paul is dealing with here and also in Galatians is the issue of circumcising Gentile believers in Messiah, which is the same as becoming a Jew. We know that some were trying to persuade the Gentiles to become Jews by being ritually circumcised, joining "the circumcision group" (see Ro. 15:8, Gal. 2:12, Eph. 2:11) and to obey all the Law (Acts 15, all the Law included Rabbinic Law as well.) Paul is establishing the fact that Gentiles are saved by faith in Messiah, not by becoming ritually circumcised (Jewish). There is nothing in all the Law and Prophets that calls for Gentiles to become Jews in order to be acceptable to God. God says the same Law He gave to Israel also applies to the Gentiles who identify with Israel (Ex 12:49).

Take care -
Chesed

BigD responds:

[BigD]

Hi there Ollie -

In answer to my previous post, you quoted Luke 16:16. I believe that you are misunderstanding this verse. It is wrong to interpret this verse as saying the Law and the Prophets are abolished because of John the immerser. Consider the very following verse: Lu 16:17 "But it is easier for heaven and earth to pass away than for one stroke of a letter of the Law to become void." So verse 16 certainly doesn't mean that the Law and the Prophets were done with, as we can see by the following verse.

Then you continued by quoting:

Romans 3:20.  "Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.

Yes, no one is justified by any law keeping, only by the blood of Jesus. I think we agree there.

21.  But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

So what is this righteousness of God without the works of the Law to which the Law and the Prophets testify? If you are trying to say that this verse means that the Law is done away with, then how is this righteousness witnessed by the Law and the Prophets? Where in the Law and the Prophets does it say that the commandments therein were only for a time, until the Messiah came and "finished" them? All throughout the Law and the Prophets it talks about the commandments being an Eternal Covenant (you can do a word search on the word "eternal" in the OT, I will spare you from having to read such a long post  ;) )

And obviously, what Paul is saying here in Romans 3 is not at odds with the Law because he later says: "Do we then nullify the Law through faith? May it never be! On the contrary, we establish the Law. (verse 3:31).

I think what Paul is dealing with here and also in Galatians is the issue of circumcising Gentile believers in Messiah, which is the same as becoming a Jew. We know that some were trying to persuade the Gentiles to become Jews by being ritually circumcised, joining "the circumcision group" (see Ro. 15:8, Gal. 2:12, Eph. 2:11) and to obey all the Law (Acts 15, all the Law included Rabbinic Law as well.) Paul is establishing the fact that Gentiles are saved by faith in Messiah, not by becoming ritually circumcised (Jewish). There is nothing in all the Law and Prophets that calls for Gentiles to become Jews in order to be acceptable to God. God says the same Law He gave to Israel also applies to the Gentiles who identify with Israel (Ex 12:49).

Take care -
Chesed

BigD responds:
Chesed, I will respond to your comments on Romans 3:31 from "A Commentary Of ROMANS Chapters 1-8 Volume, Based on the Greek New Testament" by Ernest R. Campbell, founder and president of Prarie View Bible College.

There are several words written in the Greek language which I will delete. The deleated words will be replaced with () to indicated which Greek words were deleated.

Romans 3:31. "Therefore do we annl the Law through faith? Let it never be, but we establish the law."

The main burden of this verse is to show that faith has not made the Mosaic Law ineffective, but has established the purpose for which it was given. Paul raises the question, "do we annul the law through faith?" Since this verse is open to misinterpretation we need to carefully consider the meaning of the two leading verbs in it. First, the Greek verb translated "annul" () consists of the preposition "()" prefixed to the verb "()" which means to be inactive, inoperative, and idle. This compound verb means to downgrade the Law to a position of uselessness, hence, to abrogate, nullify, and make it void of any value. According to Paul the Law was not an intrinsic part of God's eternal program, but was added for a given period of time, until Christ came and the ushering in of faith (Ga1.3:19-25). The Law was an essential forerunner of faith. It developed a consciousness of the exceeding sinfulness of sin, the prerequisite to incite sinners to be justified by faith (Rom. 3:19-20; 7:13). In view of what is written in First Timothy 1:8-10, the moral principles of the Law are still applicable to lawless sinners, condemning their abominable practices, but not to those who are just in Christ (6:14).

As far as faith annulling the Law was concerned, Paul says, "Let it never be" (), absolutely not. The Mosaic Law, in a preparatory sense, was in full effect until the faithfulness of Jesus Christ was consummated on Calvary. From that time on God has been justifying sinners who are identified with Christ through faith (Gal.3:22, 24-25; Phil. 3:9).

Second, now let us look at the statement, "but we establish the law," particularly, the verb translated "establish" (). This verb basically means we make the Law stand firm or confirm it. If God's underlying reason for giving the Law was to make men righteous, He utterly miscalculated the weakness of their flesh, for it never made any man righteous (Rom. 8:3). True, Moses wrote regarding the righteousness out of the Law, "that the one who has done it will live by it," but it failed because no one ever did it (3:20; 7:21-23). God's ultimate purpose in giving the Law was to make men righteous. This necessitated making them conscious of their sinfulness, that they might believe in Christ, who is the end of the Law unto righteousness (10:4).

[Chesed]

BigD -

According to Paul the Law was not an intrinsic part of God's eternal program, but was added for a given period of time, until Christ came and the ushering in of faith .

If this is true, then why does God give the Law as an eternal covenant? If it was only meant to be given for a time, until the Messiah came, why don't the OT scriptures reflect that? Did God change His mind?

God's ultimate purpose in giving the Law was to make men righteous.

Wrong. Do a word search on righteous among the books of the Law and you will find no such verse to back this up.

Here's some of the reasons why I believe God gave the Law to His people:

De 12:28 "Be careful to listen to all these words which I command you, so that it may be well with you and your sons after you forever, for you will be doing what is good and right in the sight of the LORD your God.

Ex. 19:5-7 "Now then, if you will indeed obey My voice and keep My covenant, then you shall be My own possession among all the peoples, for all the earth is Mine; 6 and you shall be to Me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.'

The Law was never meant to be a litmus test for salvation, but a means by which God could separate for Himself a People who belong to Him, a nation of Priests to the world.

Paul also knew the Law was never meant as a means of salvation. There has always been only one way of salvation: by grace through faith.

Take care,
Beth

[BigD]

BigD posted:
"According to Paul the Law was not an intrinsic part of God's eternal program, but was added for a given period of time, until Christ came and the ushering in of faith (Gal.3:19-25)."

Chesed responded:
"If this is true, then why does God give the Law as an eternal covenant? If it was only meant to be given for a time, until the Messiah came, why don't the OT scriptures reflect that? Did God change His mind?"

BidD replies:
Beth, keep in mind that Paul is writing to members of the Body of Christ in this dispensation of grace, and not to Israel.

Galatians 3:19-25 "Wherefore then serveth the Law? It was aadded because of transgression, TILL the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.

20 Now a mediator is not a mediator of one, but Gid is one.

21 Is the law then against the promise of God? God forbid; for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.

22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.

23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.

24 Wherefore the Law was our schoolmaster until Christ, that we might be justified by faith.  (The words to bring us) are not in the original text, but added by the translators.)

25 But after faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster."

However, the Law was an "eternal covenant" that God made with the nation of Israel. Today, the Body of Christ is not under the Law, but when Christ returns and establishes His Kingdom upon the earth, the Law will again be in effect. In fact, upon the return of Christ, God will make a "new covenant" with Israel and in that covenant the Law will be written upon their heart (see Jeremiah 31:31-34.) This new covenant (testament) is mentioned in Matthew 26:28 and referenced to in Hebrews 8:6-13.

In the kingdom age the 12 Apolstles will be sitting upon 12 thrones judging the 12 tribes of Israel. In order for there to be judges, there must be laws to judge by.

God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Often and Love the Lord!

[BigD]

BigD posted:
God's ultimate purpose in giving the Law was to make men righteous. This necessitated making them conscious of their sinfulness, that they might believe in Christ, who is the end of the Law unto righteousness (10:4).

Chesed responded:
Wrong. Do a word search on righteous among the books of the Law and you will find no such verse to back this up.

BigD replies:
Again I will quote from the Commentary by Ernest R. Campbell, from which I posted from earlier. () will indicate the words in Greek that were deleted.

Romans 10:4. "For Christ is the end of the Law unto righteousness to everyone believing."

Having said that the Jews were seeking to establish their own righteousness by keeping the Law, and were not subject to the righteousness of God. Having said the Jews were seeking to establish their own righteousness by keeping the Law, and were not subject to the righteousness of God which is embodied in Christ, Paul Now affirms that "Christ is the end of the law unto righteousness." The Greek word translated "end" () means that Christ is the consummation, fulfilment, and the one who has brought the Law to an end.

Now let us examine the statement that it is "unto righteousness" () that Christ is the end of the Law. The Greek preposition "()" used with the accusative case conveys the thought that the object of Christ's perfectly keeping the intended spirit of the Law was unto the end of righteousness. The Law had a definite place in God's eternal purpose, with reference to which Christ says, "I did not come to destroy it but to fulfill it" (Matt. 5:17). Christ fully met the requirements of the Law by perfectly fulfilling its stipulations in spirit and act. Whereas the Law was never perfectly kept by any sinner and, as a result, laid a curse on men rather than making them righteous, Christ's fulfillment of the Law consummates its purpose in God's plan, revealing the exceeding sinfulness of man's sin and the true righteousness found in Christ (Gal. 3:10, 24-25).

There is a limitation placed on the giving of this righteousness embodied in Christ; it is "to everyone believing." The Greek participle rendered believing is in the present tense and means that Christ is the perfect fulfillment of the Law to every Jew believing, trusting, and having faith in Him. We emphasize, Paul is saying this particularly to the Jewish believers in Rome, those who were once under the Law, and informing them that through their faith identification with Christ they have fulfilled the Law. Since the Law was originally given by God, its standards are in accordance with the righteousness of God, and as that which was fulfilled by Christ, it could be thought of as included in the phrase "the righteousness of God" in the preceding verse.
-----------------------------------------------------
Chesed continues:
Here's some of the reasons why I believe God gave the Law to His people:

De 12:28 "Be careful to listen to all these words which I command you, so that it may be well with you and your sons after you forever, for you will be doing what is good and right in the sight of the LORD your God.

Ex. 19:5-7 "Now then, if you will indeed obey My voice and keep My covenant, then you shall be My own possession among all the peoples, for all the earth is Mine; 6 and you shall be to Me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation.'

The Law was never meant to be a litmus test for salvation, but a means by which God could separate for Himself a People who belong to Him, a nation of Priests to the world.

Paul also knew the Law was never meant as a means of salvation. There has always been only one way of salvation: by grace through faith.

Take care,
Beth  

BigD responds:
Beth, you are taking Scripture that belongs to the nation of Israel and applying them to members of the Body of Christ. We believers today are not under the dispensation of the Law, but under the dispensation of Grace. When you mix Law and Grace, you end up with confusion and denominations.

Salvation has ALWAYS been by the GRACE of God, by believe and or doing, BY FAITH. what God required at that point in time of human history.

God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Much and Love The Lord!

[Chesed]

BigD -

The crux of the issue here is dispensationalism. I am not a dispensationalist, and this is were our disagreement lies. I would like you to invite you to another thread where I posted an article about dispensationalism if you would like to debate it. Here's the link: http://forums.christiansunite.com/index.php?board=22;action=display;threadid=5552

As far as what you have posted here, let me share some thoughts:

From the previous post you said:

God's ultimate purpose in giving the Law was to make men righteous.

And from your last post:

Having said that the Jews were seeking to establish their own righteousness by keeping the Law, and were not subject to the righteousness of God

These two statements seem to conflict. If the Law was given to make men righteous, then it would not have been wrong for Jews to keep the Law to establish their own righteousness.
If the Law could impart righteousness, then why in the world would God need to send His Son to die on the cross?

To back up what I'm saying here, I'll repost the verse you quoted from Galatians:

21 Is the law then against the promise of God? God forbid; for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law

you are taking Scripture that belongs to the nation of Israel and applying them to members of the Body of Christ.

Guilty as charged!  
Eph. 2 12, 19 -- that at that time you were without Christ, being aliens from the commonwealth of Israel and strangers from the covenants of promise, having no hope and without God in the world.

Now, therefore, you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God,

Eph. 3:6 the Gentiles have become fellow heirs, members of the same body, and sharers in the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel

Romans 11:16 If the part of the dough offered as first fruits is holy, then the whole batch is holy; and if the root is holy, then the branches also are holy.

One household, One body, One lump, One root. We gentiles joined Israel, God's holy nation when we came to faith in Messiah. Israel and the church are one. God has only one bride, no mistresses and He is not a polygamist.

However, the Law was an "eternal covenant" that God made with the nation of Israel. Today, the Body of Christ is not under the Law, but when Christ returns and establishes His Kingdom upon the earth, the Law will again be in effect. In fact, upon the return of Christ, God will make a "new covenant" with Israel and in that covenant the Law will be written upon their heart (see Jeremiah 31:31-34.) This new covenant (testament) is mentioned in Matthew 26:28 and referenced to in Hebrews 8:6-13.

If all the covenants are made with ONLY Israel, then what covenant are you a part of?

In the kingdom age the 12 Apolstles will be sitting upon 12 thrones judging the 12 tribes of Israel. In order for there to be judges, there must be laws to judge by.

So if the Law is abolished by Messiah's death, and Messiah's death was once and for all, I would think the Law would be abolished forever without a need for it to come back in any other "dispensation." Of course, I don't believe the Law was abolished at all (Matt. 5:17).

Take care,
Chesed