Thank you, Pastor Roger!

[Matthew 5:22]

Matthew 5:22 ->  But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment...

Does anyone know why some translations (ie: KJV - ISV) say "without a cause" and others (ie: ASV - MSG) do not?

Omitting the words "without a cause" seams more Christlike, but which is the correct translation?


btw - I saw e-Sword on this forum and recently downloaded and installed it.  What a help it has been!  To be able to compare other translations, view commentaries, look up word meanings (and there's tons of other stuff I don't even know how to use yet!)  What a blessing the Bible has been in my life recently through the e-Sword tool!  

Thank you, DreamWeaver!  I was thinking that the polygamy was ok for him and maybe even to have the concubine.  He was such a great man.

I've been confused lately on the subject of polygamy and concubines in the Old Testament.  Wasn't polygamy ok for a while?  or was it against God to do so from the beginning?  I understand, of course, that it's wrong now.  And haven't concubines been ok (in OT) for certain situations?  Maybe there's a thread that deals with this somewhere on this board?  

I'm really impressed with this forum!  I'm actually relieved that I've found it.  I often have questions from the reading that I've done in the Bible and can't find the answer myself - I don't have the expertise or understanding that alot of you have and if I ask my friends or coworkers etc they just try to convert me to their religion or just tell me to have more faith.

Thanks again for your response...  it was just what I was looking for...  an answer.  

Did Gideon sin in having a concubine?