Hello,
I'm debating on an atheist forum (and man, that place is nasty) about the problem of evil. I'm currently stumped. The question was "Why did God allow evil to happen?"

I said something along the lines of: "God allowed Adam to exercise his free will by eating the fruit. God doesn't make people as automatons that follow His orders. If God prevented evil, He would have interfered with free will.  Adam, by his own choice, ate the fruit and brought sin into the world."

Someone on the forum said had this reply in some form or another: "If you say that God does respect our free will, doesn't that contradict the Bible? God hardened people's hearts in the Bible. Thus, He can and does control people; He does not care about our free will. If God hardened Pharoh's heart to free Israel, for example, then why didn't He harden Adam's heart to not eat the fruit?

This is not to mention the fact that because at least some people don't have free will (like Pharoh), the people that go to hell are sent there by God. Cruel, mean ol' God forced Pharoh into damnation."


Was I wrong with what I said about God and free will?

If you argue that "hardening a heart" is not actually "controlling," please explain this. How do I replay to the question "If controlled Pharoh to free Israel, for example, then why didn't He control Adam and not have him eat the fruit?"

Realize that I'm not going through "losing my faith and I need answers" syndrome. I'm a Christian no matter what. But I do not know how to respond to this at all. What did I say that was wrong? How do I defend God's heart hardedning, free will, and the fall? I realize that there is alot to answer here, but I need the help. Thank you VERY much in advance.