From
www.philthompson.netIf Mary is still a virgin, who are the "Brothers of the Lord"?
When non-Protestants call Mary the "Virgin," they mean she remained a virgin throughout her life. She is called aiparthenos in Greek: Ever-virgin.
When Protestants use the term "virgin" in reference to Mary, they usually mean she was a virgin only until the birth of Jesus. They believe that she and Joseph later had children whom Scripture refers to as "the brethren of the Lord." What gives rise to the disagreement are biblical verses that refer to the brothers (and sisters) of the Lord. Until I began reading the historical records of what Christians wrote and believed in the earliest centuries, I never thought to question the modern Protestant assumption that these were physical siblings of Jesus. (I had no idea at the time that Luther, Calvin, and even Wesley taught the earlier belief that she was ever-virgin.)
To put the question in historical context, we should look at the testimony of the early Church. The first time this question is recorded to have been raised was in the controversy between the Bible translator Jerome and the Arian Helvidius, who proposed that the "brothers of the Lord" were children born to Mary and Joseph after Christ's birth. Jerome, writing about 380, states that at first he declined to comment on Helvidius' remarks because they were a "novel, wicked, and a daring affront to the faith of the whole world." Eventually, though, Jerome's friends convinced him to write a reply, which turned out to be his treatise called On the Perpetual Virginity of the Blessed Mary. He used not only the scriptural arguments given above, but cited earlier Christian writers, such as Ignatius, Polycarp, Irenaeus, and Justin Martyr. Helvidius was unable to come up with a reply, and his theory remained in disrepute and was not heard of again for over a thousand years. Significantly, when in recent times the Radical Reformation resurrected the issue, reformer John Calvin refuted it on the same basis.
There are about ten instances in the New Testament where "brothers" and "sisters" of the Lord are mentioned (Matthew 13:55; Mark 3:31-34; Luke 8:19-20; John 2:12; 7:1, 5; 7:10; Acts 1:14). Let's examine a few of them: "While he was still speaking to the people, behold, his mother and his brothers stood outside, asking to speak to him" (Matt. 12:46). "Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary and brother of James and Joses and Judas and Simon, and are not his sisters here with us?" (Mark 6:3). "For even his brothers did not believe in him" (John 7:5). "All these with one accord devoted themselves to prayer, together with the women and Mary the mother of Jesus, and with his brothers" (Acts 1:14). "Do we not have the right to be accompanied by a wife, as the other apostles and the brothers of the Lord and Cephas?" (1 Corinthians 9:5).
When trying to understand these verses, the first thing to note is that in the Semitic world of the Bible, in the Aramaic that Jesus spoke, as in Hebrew, the term "brother" has a very wide meaning. It is not restricted to the literal meaning of a full brother or half-brother. The Old Testament shows that the term "brother" had a very wide semantic range of meaning and could refer to any male relative from whom you are not descended (male relatives from whom you are descended are known as "fathers"), as well as kinsmen such as cousins, members of the family by marriage or law though not related to you by blood, and even friends or political allies (1 Samuel 9:13; 20:32; 2 Samuel 1:26; Amos 1:9).
Lot, for example, is called Abraham's "brother" (Genesis 14:14), even though, being the son of Haran, Abraham's brother (Genesis 11:26-28), he was actually Abraham's nephew. Similarly, Jacob is called the "brother" of his uncle Laban (Genesis 29:15). Kish and Eleazar were the sons of Mahli. Kish had sons of his own, but Eleazar had no sons, only daughters, who married their "brethren," the sons of Kish. These "brethren" were really their cousins (1 Chronicles 23:21-22).
The terms "brother" and "sister" did not refer only to close relatives, as in the above examples. Sometimes they meant kinsman (Deuteronomy 23:7, Nehemiah 5:7, Jeremiah 34:9), as in the reference to the forty-two "brethren" of King Azariah (2 Kings 10:13-14).
No Word for Cousin
Why this ambiguous usage? Because where we would say "cousin", speakers of Hebrew and Aramaic used either the word for "brother" or a circumlocution, such as "the son of the sister of my father." But in everyday use Semitic people simply said "brother."
The writers of the New Testament were brought up to use "brothers" to mean both cousins and sons of the same father -- plus other relatives and even non-relatives. When they wrote in Greek, they did the same thing the translators of the Septuagint did. (The Septuagint was the Greek version of the Hebrew Bible. Translated by Jewish scholars a century or two before Christ's birth, it was the version of the Bible from which most of the Old Testament quotations found in the New Testament are taken.) In the Septuagint the Hebrew word that includes both brothers and cousins was translated as adelphos, which in Greek usually has the narrow meaning that the English "brother" has. Unlike Hebrew or Aramaic, Greek has a separate word for cousin, anepsios, but the translators of the Septuagint favored adelphos, even for true cousins.
The Jewish translators imported this Jewish idiom into the Greek Bible. They took an exact equivalent of the Hebrew word for "brother" and did not use adelphos in one place (for sons of the same parents), and anepsios in another (for cousins). This same usage was employed by the writers of the New Testament and passed into English translations of the Bible. To determine just what "brethren" or "brother" or "sister" means in any one verse, we have to look at the context. When we do that, we see that unavoidable problems arise if we assume that Mary had children other than Jesus.
When Jesus was found in the Temple at age twelve (Luke 2:41-51) the context suggests that he was the only son of Mary and Joseph. There is no hint in this episode of any other children in the family. Jesus grew up in Nazareth, and the people of Nazareth referred to him not only as "one of Joseph's sons" but as "the son of Mary" (Mark 6:3). In fact, others in the Gospels are never referred to as Mary's sons - not even when they are called "brethren of the Lord."
There is another point, perhaps a little harder for moderns, or at least Westerners, to grasp. It is that the attitude taken by the "brethren of the Lord" implies they are his elders. In ancient - and, particularly, in Eastern societies (remember, Palestine is in Asia), older sons give advice to younger, not younger to the older; it is disrespectful to do so. But we find Jesus' brethren counselling him that Galilee was no place for him, and that he should go to Judea so he could make a name for himself (John 7:3-4).
Another time, they sought to restrain him for his own benefit: "And when his family heard it, they went out to seize him, for people were saying, 'He is beside himself'" (Mark 3:21). This kind of behavior could make sense for ancient Jews if the "brethren" were older than Jesus, but that alone eliminates them as his biological brothers, since Jesus was Mary's "first-born" son (Luke 2:7).
Consider what happened at the foot of the Cross. When he was dying, Jesus entrusted his mother to the apostle John. "When Jesus saw his mother, and the disciple whom he loved standing near, he said to his mother, 'Woman, behold, your son!' Then he said to the disciple, 'Behold, your mother!' And from that hour the disciple took her to his own home" (John 19:26-27). Now the Gospels mention four of his "brethren," James, Joseph, Simon, and Jude. It is hard to imagine why Jesus would have disregarded family ties and made this provision for his mother if these four were also her sons.
Modern arguments
Many modern Protestants insist that "brethren of the Lord" must be interpreted in the literal sense of the Greek. They most commonly make two arguments based on Matthew 1:25: "He did not know her until (Greek: eos) she brought forth her firstborn son." They first argue that the natural inference from "till" is that Joseph and Mary afterward lived together as husband and wife, in the usual sense, and had other children. Otherwise, why would Jesus be called "first-born"? Doesn't that mean there must have been at least a "second-born," perhaps a "third-born" and "fourth-born," and so on? The problem is that they are using a narrow, modern meaning of the English word "until," instead of the meaning it had when the Bible was written. In the Bible, it means only that some action did not happen up to a certain point; it does not imply that the action did happen later, which is the modern sense of the term. In fact, if the modern sense is forced on the Bible, some strange meanings result.
Consider this line: "Michal the daughter of Saul had no children till the day of her death" (2 Samuel 6:23). Did she have children after her death? Or the raven that Noah released from the ark - the bird "went to and fro until the waters were dried up from the earth" (Genesis 8:7). In fact, as the story progresses, we see that the raven never returned at all.