I, II, III John

[Berean_]

The books of I, II, III John are books that are not written to the Body of Christ. Many who know how to rightly divide use some verses from these books but fail to notice what verses go with them them.

As we know we are not under the law, not saved by keeping the commandments, and our sins are already forgiven us in Christ the moment we believed.

If one will carefully read over I John they will see that this is a book which is under law. It is written to the Kingdom Jews.  I had always taken it as the book of "love" and had read it as so, just because I was trained to do so. It is amazing the verses I had underlined and the ones I chose to ignore because they did not go with grace. They troubled me...but I figured they fit in some how. But they don't. Those of us who rightly divide should be very careful when choosing verses from books that are not addressed to the Body of Christ. Every book after the book of Philemon, that is from Hebrews on...is not addressed to the Body of Christ.

From I John: (there are many more troubling verses...I am just listing these)

I John 1:9: If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (We were already forgiven of all sin by the crosswork of Christ, when we believed)

3:4: Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.


Paul tells us:


Galations 4:14 14: For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:

15: Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression. 16: Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace;

[Evangelist]

The books of I, II, III John are books that are not written to the Body of Christ. Many who know how to rightly divide use some verses from these books but fail to notice what verses go with them them.

1 John, while written "generically" and not to a specific group (ie: church or town), is a letter to those who ARE redeemed, meaning the Body of Christ (church) in general.

Several things point to this, but most pointedly:
Ch. 2:18, where John makes ref. to the antichrist to come, vs. 19 where he speaks of those who have left the "fold", and why, and vs. 20 where he specifies that those to whom he is writing have received the Holy Ghost (an unction). In vs. 22 he specifies that those who deny Jesus as messiah are antichrist (would he say that to the Jews?), and in vs. 24 exhorts to "continue" in the Son.


While these three books are written primarily to combat the growing gnostic heresy, there are certain other characteristics and instructions that show up. In Ch. 5, vs 13 John specifies that he is writing so that the readers will "know that ye have ete4rnal life...", which would not be possible for the non-messianic Jew.

He also deals pointedly with the ever-present problem of sin. While Jesus died to cover our sins, and the sin that we did abide in before coming to Christ are covered and forgiven at the moment of belief and salvation, the sins that we commit afterward are "set aside", or forgiven ONLY when we ask forgiveness for them...an act of acknowledgment of our error, and repentence (or turning away) from that, whatever it was. Failure to seek forgiveness and to repent does not destroy or abrogate our salvation, but it most assuredly INTERRUPTS our communion with Him, and our usefullness in the Kingdom.

2 John is basically a continuation, although written to a specific person (the elect lady) and children, who apparently are being troubled by others. John continues to clarify the error of gnosticism and false teachers, and points out the specific ways in which a believer can "judge fruit."

3 John is written to a person named Gaius, and is probably the same Gaius mentioned in one of the Pauline epistles, and is an elder in a church. That he is definitely a believer is reinforced in 1:6, where Gaius is praised for the "witness of thy charity before the church:"

Considering that during the early years of the church (the first 40 or so) that vast majority of the church members were Jews who converted, or Messianic....is this what you mean by "Kingdom Jews"?

Those of us who rightly divide should be very careful when choosing verses from books that are not addressed to the Body of Christ. Every book after the book of Philemon, that is from Hebrews on...is not addressed to the Body of Christ.

Yes...it would be good to be very careful....especially when making blanket statements such as the above.

[Berean_]

The books of I, II, III John are books that are not written to the Body of Christ. Many who know how to rightly divide use some verses from these books but fail to notice what verses go with them them.

1 John, while written "generically" and not to a specific group (ie: church or town), is a letter to those who ARE redeemed, meaning the Body of Christ (church) in general.

Several things point to this, but most pointedly:
Ch. 2:18, where John makes ref. to the antichrist to come, vs. 19 where he speaks of those who have left the "fold", and why, and vs. 20 where he specifies that those to whom he is writing have received the Holy Ghost (an unction). In vs. 22 he specifies that those who deny Jesus as messiah are antichrist (would he say that to the Jews?), and in vs. 24 exhorts to "continue" in the Son.


While these three books are written primarily to combat the growing gnostic heresy, there are certain other characteristics and instructions that show up. In Ch. 5, vs 13 John specifies that he is writing so that the readers will "know that ye have ete4rnal life...", which would not be possible for the non-messianic Jew.

He also deals pointedly with the ever-present problem of sin. While Jesus died to cover our sins, and the sin that we did abide in before coming to Christ are covered and forgiven at the moment of belief and salvation, the sins that we commit afterward are "set aside", or forgiven ONLY when we ask forgiveness for them...an act of acknowledgment of our error, and repentence (or turning away) from that, whatever it was. Failure to seek forgiveness and to repent does not destroy or abrogate our salvation, but it most assuredly INTERRUPTS our communion with Him, and our usefullness in the Kingdom.

2 John is basically a continuation, although written to a specific person (the elect lady) and children, who apparently are being troubled by others. John continues to clarify the error of gnosticism and false teachers, and points out the specific ways in which a believer can "judge fruit."

3 John is written to a person named Gaius, and is probably the same Gaius mentioned in one of the Pauline epistles, and is an elder in a church. That he is definitely a believer is reinforced in 1:6, where Gaius is praised for the "witness of thy charity before the church:"

Considering that during the early years of the church (the first 40 or so) that vast majority of the church members were Jews who converted, or Messianic....is this what you mean by "Kingdom Jews"?

Those of us who rightly divide should be very careful when choosing verses from books that are not addressed to the Body of Christ. Every book after the book of Philemon, that is from Hebrews on...is not addressed to the Body of Christ.

Yes...it would be good to be very careful....especially when making blanket statements such as the above.

So, I get things straight in the beginning and have nothing taken wrong, I am assuming you are stating that first off:

We can lose our salvation.

There is absoloutly no assurance of salvation until we die.

We are to obey the commandmants for salvation.

We are to be perfect.

We are under the law.

There is more...but this will due for now.
Thanks for your time.

[BigD]

IMHO the books of I, II, III John were written to the ones that James, Cephas (Peter) and John agreed, with Paul, that they would stay with the circumcision (Jews) and that he (Paul) should go to the heathen.

Those of the circumcision were saved during the preaching of "the gospel of the kingdom" and will one day inherit the kingdom here upon the earth. That is why they are often called "kingdom saints."

The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:8).

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

After God set the nation of Israel aside, after the stoning of Stephen, and after the raising up of the Apostle Paul, the disciples realized that they could not carry out the "so called" great commission that Jesus gave them. They also recognized that Paul was given a different commission to go to all mankind with the gospel of uncircumcision, i.e. "the gospel of the grace of God." (Acts 15 and Galatians 2 are two different accounts of the meeting at Jerusalem where this was decided.

The books of James and I, II Peter are also written to the "kingdom saints."

Members of the Body of Christ, the Church for today, has no inheritance in an earthly kingdom, but we do have a heavenly home to look forward to.

God Bless.

[Brother Love]

The books of I, II, III John are books that are not written to the Body of Christ. Many who know how to rightly divide use some verses from these books but fail to notice what verses go with them them.

As we know we are not under the law, not saved by keeping the commandments, and our sins are already forgiven us in Christ the moment we believed.

If one will carefully read over I John they will see that this is a book which is under law. It is written to the Kingdom Jews.  I had always taken it as the book of "love" and had read it as so, just because I was trained to do so. It is amazing the verses I had underlined and the ones I chose to ignore because they did not go with grace. They troubled me...but I figured they fit in some how. But they don't. Those of us who rightly divide should be very careful when choosing verses from books that are not addressed to the Body of Christ. Every book after the book of Philemon, that is from Hebrews on...is not addressed to the Body of Christ.

From I John: (there are many more troubling verses...I am just listing these)

I John 1:9: If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. (We were already forgiven of all sin by the crosswork of Christ, when we believed)

3:4: Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law.


Paul tells us:


Galations 4:14 14: For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:

15: Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression. 16: Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace;

AAAAAAAAAAAMEN and AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAMEN!!!!!

Your friend and Brother

Brother Love

<))><

[Berean_]

Thank you Big D and Brother Love.

That was an excellent explanation of I, II, and III John you gave Big D. I know it will help those of us who know the Word rightly divided to be able to understand that we are to use any books from Hebrews through Revelation, just as we use the Gospels or the Old Testament. All may be for us...BUT, they are not to us, the Body of Christ.

Therefore we must be very careful in the verses we chose to use, and read the former and latter verses to be sure we can use them for the Body of Christ.

I only started this thread because I have seen so many verses posted by folks who I believe know the Word rightly divided, and are using verses from these books which are putting the Body of Christ under law. I think it is quite by accident and not realizing what the verses are actually saying.

I have meant this thread in the spirit of love and hope it was taken as such. If I correct someone on using a verse it is only because I want them to know so they can grow in God's Word and have the knowledge and joy of how to rightly divide His Word. And also...so that others will know the truth. If verses from the books of John and others are left without a comment, some may begin to place themselves under the law because of those books and verses. That is why knowing how to rightly divide God's Word is so very important.

Again, this was meant in the spirit of love...God bless.

Thanks for your time and thanks again Big D for the great post...

[ollie]

IMHO the books of I, II, III John were written to the ones that James, Cephas (Peter) and John agreed, with Paul, that they would stay with the circumcision (Jews) and that he (Paul) should go to the heathen.

Those of the circumcision were saved during the preaching of "the gospel of the kingdom" and will one day inherit the kingdom here upon the earth. That is why they are often called "kingdom saints."

The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:.

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

After God set the nation of Israel aside, after the stoning of Stephen, and after the raising up of the Apostle Paul, the disciples realized that they could not carry out the "so called" great commission that Jesus gave them. They also recognized that Paul was given a different commission to go to all mankind with the gospel of uncircumcision, i.e. "the gospel of the grace of God." (Acts 15 and Galatians 2 are two different accounts of the meeting at Jerusalem where this was decided.

The books of James and I, II Peter are also written to the "kingdom saints."

Members of the Body of Christ, the Church for today, has no inheritance in an earthly kingdom, but we do have a heavenly home to look forward to.

God Bless.

"The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:.

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

However Paul does mention this:

Colossians 1:23.  "If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;'

Any thoughts on this?
 Did paul complete the great commission with those that worked with Him. seperate from the 12?  Is the verse telling us the gospel has been preached to all?

ollie

[Reba]

IMHO the books of I, II, III John were written to the ones that James, Cephas (Peter) and John agreed, with Paul, that they would stay with the circumcision (Jews) and that he (Paul) should go to the heathen.

Those of the circumcision were saved during the preaching of "the gospel of the kingdom" and will one day inherit the kingdom here upon the earth. That is why they are often called "kingdom saints."

The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:.

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

After God set the nation of Israel aside, after the stoning of Stephen, and after the raising up of the Apostle Paul, the disciples realized that they could not carry out the "so called" great commission that Jesus gave them. They also recognized that Paul was given a different commission to go to all mankind with the gospel of uncircumcision, i.e. "the gospel of the grace of God." (Acts 15 and Galatians 2 are two different accounts of the meeting at Jerusalem where this was decided.

The books of James and I, II Peter are also written to the "kingdom saints."

Members of the Body of Christ, the Church for today, has no inheritance in an earthly kingdom, but we do have a heavenly home to look forward to.

God Bless.

"The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:.

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

However Paul does mention this:

Colossians 1:23.  "If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;'

Any thoughts on this?
 Did paul complete the great commission with those that worked with Him. seperate from the 12?  Is the verse telling us the gospel has been preached to all?

ollie

 Carefull Ollie you are sounding like Hitch....

[BigD]

IMHO the books of I, II, III John were written to the ones that James, Cephas (Peter) and John agreed, with Paul, that they would stay with the circumcision (Jews) and that he (Paul) should go to the heathen.

Those of the circumcision were saved during the preaching of "the gospel of the kingdom" and will one day inherit the kingdom here upon the earth. That is why they are often called "kingdom saints."

The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:8).

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

After God set the nation of Israel aside, after the stoning of Stephen, and after the raising up of the Apostle Paul, the disciples realized that they could not carry out the "so called" great commission that Jesus gave them. They also recognized that Paul was given a different commission to go to all mankind with the gospel of uncircumcision, i.e. "the gospel of the grace of God." (Acts 15 and Galatians 2 are two different accounts of the meeting at Jerusalem where this was decided.

The books of James and I, II Peter are also written to the "kingdom saints."

Members of the Body of Christ, the Church for today, has no inheritance in an earthly kingdom, but we do have a heavenly home to look forward to.

God Bless.

"The 12 were commissioned by Jesus to preach "the gospel of the kingdom" to all the nations beginning at Jerusalem (Acts 1:8).

There is no record of the 12 ever going to the nations. Even in Acts 11:19 we find them going "to the Jews only."

However Paul does mention this:

Colossians 1:23.  "If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;'

Any thoughts on this?
 Did paul complete the great commission with those that worked with Him. seperate from the 12?  Is the verse telling us the gospel has been preached to all?

ollie

BigD responds:
No, Paul DID NOT complete the "so called" great commission that was given to the 12 disciples. The were to preach "the gospel of the kingdom," and Paul was commissioned to preach "the gospel of the grace of God."

"The gospel of the kingdom" had the fulfillment of prophesy in view, and "the gospel of the grace of God" had to do with the revelation of the MYSTERY, "which was kept secret since the world began," and NOW revealed to the Apostle Paul.

Paul's commission, like ours today, is to preach "the word of reconciliation" (see 2Cor518-20), and "to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God..."

When the disciples were given their commission; the Law was still in effect. During the preaching of Paul's commission, the Law is set aside. However, after the rapture of the Chruch, the Body of Christ, "the gospel of the kingdom" will again be preached and the Law will again be in effect.

Concerning the phrase and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;'I will copy from "A Commentary Of COLOSSIANS & PHILEMON Based on the Greek New Testament" by Dr. Ernest R. Campbell, who is considered by many as an authority of the Greek language.

From the above mentioned book:(I am writing the word "omit" where Dr. Campbell uses the Greek word because I do not know how to write Greek letters on my computer.)

"With respect to the Gospel, of which the message of hope was a very significant part, Paul says that it was "preached in all creation under heaven." The Greek word translated "preached" (omit) is in the aorist tense and the passive voice, which implies that it had already been preached or proclaimed in all creation at the time Paul is writing. The phrase "in all creation" (omit); is probably best understood as being in the locative case, i.e., it was preached in the sphere of or in the midst of all creation.

To interpret and translate this to every creature is inconsistent with the known historical facts. Also, if this were the intended meaning, we would expect the same grammatical construction as in Mark 16:15, "to every creature" omit;). In writing to the Romans Paul refers to the limits to which he had preached the Gospel, namely, as far north as Illyricum (Rom. 15:19). He had wanted to get as far west as Spain (cf. Rom. 15:24, 28); however we have no record of him getting there.

Paul now affirms the fact that he was made a minister of the Gospel. It appears to us that the verb (omit); must be given a passive meaning in this phrase. To hold that it is a middle voice, and to translate it accordingly, means that Paul made himself a minister of the Gospel, which is foreign to his historical background and other affirmations.

Contrary to his own will Paul had been made a minister of the Gospel (cf. Acts 9:13-16; Rom. 1:1; 1 Cor. 1:1; Gal. 1:1, 15-16; Eph. 3:1-5). The correct grammatical appraisal of the form of this word must allow it to have both a middle (cf. 1 Cor. 2:3; 9:15) and a passive meaning (cf. Heb. 2:2; 11:7). Paul was made a minister of the Gospel of the Grace of God (cf. Acts 20:24), the Gospel for this present Church age, which declares that believers will be holy, blameless, and irreproachable solely on the basis of Jesus Christ's meritorious death.

I hope this is helpful.

God Bless.

Live Well,  Laugh Often,  Love the Lord!

[ollie]

Thanks for your reply.

 What a concept that the gospel of Christ was one thing to the Jews and another to the gentiles. Especially when we are told that both are one in Christ. It is a concept that seems cultish and false according to scripture taken as a whole and not in part.

Paul proclaims what is the gospel he preached to the faithful at Corinth.

It seems to be the same gospel the 12 preached.

Also Paul acknowledges that it is in the very last sentence of this quote. He says, "I or they", then "we".

1 Corinthians 15

 1.  Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
 2.  By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
 3.  For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
 4.  And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:
 5.  And that he was seen of Cephas, then of the twelve:
 6.  After that, he was seen of above five hundred brethren at once; of whom the greater part remain unto this present, but some are fallen asleep.
 7.  After that, he was seen of James; then of all the apostles.
 8.  And last of all he was seen of me also, as of one born out of due time.
 9.  For I am the least of the apostles, that am not meet to be called an apostle, because I persecuted the church of God.
 10.  But by the grace of God I am what I am: and his grace which was bestowed upon me was not in vain; but I laboured more abundantly than they all: yet not I, but the grace of God which was with me.
 11.  Therefore whether it were I or they, so we preach, and so ye believed.

Also, perhaps "all creatures under heaven" refered to the known world under the auspices of Rome. Just a thought on that verse.

Thanks again for your thoughts.
However the Bible teaches the same gospel of Christ given through God's grace to the Jew and Gentile.

Ollie

[BigD]

Ollie:
THANK YOU for your reply. However, I must leave shortly for most of the day; so I will not be able to answer this until probably this evening. So be patient.

God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Often and Love the Lord.

[Evangelist]

Posted by Berean

So, I get things straight in the beginning and have nothing taken wrong, I am assuming you are stating that first off:
We can lose our salvation.
There is absoloutly no assurance of salvation until we die.
We are to obey the commandmants for salvation.
We are to be perfect.
We are under the law.
There is more...but this will due for now.
Thanks for your time.

With all due respect, Berean, but your comments here indicate that you did not bother to read (with understanding) the scriptures and comments I posted.

Example:you said: "So, I get things straight in the beginning and have nothing taken wrong, I am assuming you are stating that first off:
We can lose our salvation."

whereas I had posted "John specifies that he is writing so that the readers will "know that ye have eternal life..." and "Failure to seek forgiveness and to repent does not destroy or abrogate our salvation,..."

So how do you get I'm stating we can lose salvation?

In addition, your other comments also don't fit at all with what was posted.

It appears at this point that you not only don't rightly divide the Word of God, but you can't even rightly discern or understand a clear, concise and unequivocal statement made by someone else, preferring instead to twist into something it is not.

Obviously, you not only didn't get things straight from the beginning, but you have taken everything wrong, and made false assumptions.

Certainly not very "berean-ish".

[BronxBriar]

I don't know where you find these translations of the bibles but the original was written in Greek and in ancient Greek.

Not one word, NOT ONE, of any extant NT text was written in ancient (classical) Greek. That age had been long gone and the Greek used by Paul and the other NT writers was Koine (common) Greek (and even that is quite different from the modern Greek used today). After that glaring error I just could continue with your post. Sorry.

[Berean_]

Posted by Berean

So, I get things straight in the beginning and have nothing taken wrong, I am assuming you are stating that first off:
We can lose our salvation.
There is absoloutly no assurance of salvation until we die.
We are to obey the commandmants for salvation.
We are to be perfect.
We are under the law.
There is more...but this will due for now.
Thanks for your time.

With all due respect, Berean, but your comments here indicate that you did not bother to read (with understanding) the scriptures and comments I posted.

Example:you said: "So, I get things straight in the beginning and have nothing taken wrong, I am assuming you are stating that first off:
We can lose our salvation."

whereas I had posted "John specifies that he is writing so that the readers will "know that ye have eternal life..." and "Failure to seek forgiveness and to repent does not destroy or abrogate our salvation,..."

So how do you get I'm stating we can lose salvation?

In addition, your other comments also don't fit at all with what was posted.

It appears at this point that you not only don't rightly divide the Word of God, but you can't even rightly discern or understand a clear, concise and unequivocal statement made by someone else, preferring instead to twist into something it is not.

Obviously, you not only didn't get things straight from the beginning, but you have taken everything wrong, and made false assumptions.

Certainly not very "berean-ish".

Read this part of your post again. I will break it down for you.

He also deals pointedly with the ever-present problem of sin. While Jesus died to cover our sins, and the sin that we did abide in before coming to Christ are covered and forgiven at the moment of belief and salvation,

 the sins that we commit afterward are "set aside", or forgiven ONLY when we ask forgiveness for them...

Looks like one can lose their salvation to me if they do not ask. NO ONE can enter Heaven without having their sins forgiven.

ALL sin is forgiven the moment one believes. The law has been set aside...we are not under the law but under grace, therefore we shall not be judge by the law. There is not one transgression for the believer.

Here is the Word of God, Romans 4:14,15

14: For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect:

15: Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.

[BigD]

Thanks for your reply.

 What a concept that the gospel of Christ was one thing to the Jews and another to the gentiles. Especially when we are told that both are one in Christ. It is a concept that seems cultish and false according to scripture taken as a whole and not in part.

Paul proclaims what is the gospel he preached to the faithful at Corinth.

It seems to be the same gospel the 12 preached.

Also Paul acknowledges that it is in the very last sentence of this quote. He says, "I or they", then "we".

BigD responds:
Part I - 1 Corinthians 15:1-11 will be in Part II

Ollie:
When Jesus came to earth, He COMMANDED His disciples; "Go not into the way of the Gentiles and into any city of the Samaritians enter ye not: But go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel" (Matthew 10:5:6).

Jesus told the Syrophenician woman in Matthew 15:24 " I am not sent but unto the lost sheep of the house of Israel."

Paul says in Romans 15:8 "Now I say that Jesus Christ was a minister of the circumcision (Isreal) to confirm the promises made to the fathers."

Paul says in Romans 16:25: Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began."

It appears to me that Paul is preaching something that was never preached before. Or, is Paul a liar?

In Galatians 1:11,12 Paul says: "But I certify you, brethren, that the gospel which was preached of me is not after man. For neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ."

Paul didn't get his revelations until AFTER Jesus went back into heaven.

Paul writes in Ephesians 3:2 "If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

3 How that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery; (as I wrote afore in a few words,

4 Whereby, when ye read, ye may understand my knowledge in the mysteries of Christ)

5 Which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apolstles and prophest by the Spirit;

How could Paul be preaching what Jesus and the 12 preached if what he preached several years after Christ went back to heaven?

I do study the Bible in its entirety. However, I do take it literally and in the context in which it was written. I do not read the Chruch, the Body of Christ, into what was required of the nation of Israel.

It appears to me that you are reading the revelations given to Paul into the Gospels. Do you read the Laws of Moses into the Garden of Eden or the battles of WWII into the battles of WWI. I don't think so. So, WHY do you read the future revelations to Paul into the Gospels. That just doesn't make sense to me.

God Bless.
Live Well, Laugh Often and Love the Lord.