Genesis 6:1-2

[Jabez]

6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

What does this say to you?Key points sons of God,and daughters of men.

[Ralph]

  I believe that is speaking of believing men who married into
unbelieving families. Is there evidence to the contrary?

[Petro]

6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

What does this say to you?Key points sons of God,and daughters of men.

I agree with Ralph.els

Contrary to the popular belief that "sons of God" refers to angels (and fallen angels at that) is erroneous, since there is no biblical evidence fallen angels, ever take on the form of flesh,  certainly the scriptures are silent in this regard, furthermore it is clear that angels are spirits, and God never created them to possess a physical body.

That they indwell physical bodies is evident, as Jesus cast evil demon spirits, from afflicted men in the testimony of the Gospels.

Sons of God, refers to sons in the lineage of Adam.

Daughters of men, refers to exactly that,ers of daught men; it does not imply they were ungodly dauthers, since at Gensis
24:12-14, we find the same words, as that in Gen 6:2 & 4, and we read that Rebekah the future wife of Isaac comes to water, where the other daughters of men come to do the same.

But above all else verwse 3, settles the matter, since God says;

3  And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.

Clearly He is speaking of men, and not angels, fallen or otherwise.


God Bless,

Petro

[Petro]

jabez,

A perfect example of these verses is made when considering the end of Sodom and Gomorah at Gen 18, 19.

Lot was a just man, according to 2 Pet 2:7.

Nothing is said about his wife, and when one reads the rest of the story in Genesis 19, his daughters commit incest with him, the result is a nation "the Moabites", who later has a king Balak, who sought Balaam a prophet to curse Israel, and have been a nation in the siader of Israel since the begining.

Moab; according to the prophet Zepheniah;

...............shall be as Sodom, and the children of Ammon as Gomorrah, even the breeding of nettles, and saltpits, and a perpetual desolation: the residue of my people shall spoil them, and the remnant of my people shall possess them.
This shall they have for their pride, because they have reproached and magnified themselves against the people of the LORD of hosts.
The LORD will be terrible unto them: (Zep 2:9-11)

And this is the result when Godly men or women become unequally yoked with unbelievers, their offspring unless reared in the fear, admonishment and ways of the Lord, end up scoffing the God of their fathers and mothers, and flaunt their rebellion openly against the God of Heaven.

So, clearly Lot was a Son of God, and his wife (though the scripture is silent) is a daughter of unbelieving man.

Jesus spoke of Lot's wife, at Jhn 17:32-33, and speaks these words;

32  Remember Lot's wife.
Whosoever shall seek to save his life shall lose it; and whosoever shall lose his life shall preserve it.

She was fleeing from the judgement to come, but longed to return to Sodom, when she looked back.

This is why Jesus said;

No man, having put his hand to the plow, and looking back, is fit for the kingdom of God.[/b]  Lk9:62


Blessings,
Petro

[2nd Timothy]

6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, 6:2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they [were] fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.

What does this say to you?Key points sons of God,and daughters of men.

I agree with Ralph.els

Contrary to the popular belief that "sons of God" refers to angels (and fallen angels at that) is erroneous, since there is no biblical evidence fallen angels, ever take on the form of flesh,  certainly the scriptures are silent in this regard, furthermore it is clear that angels are spirits, and God never created them to possess a physical body.

That they indwell physical bodies is evident, as Jesus cast evil demon spirits, from afflicted men in the testimony of the Gospels.

Sons of God, refers to sons in the lineage of Adam.

Daughters of men, refers to exactly that,ers of daught men; it does not imply they were ungodly dauthers, since at Gensis
24:12-14, we find the same words, as that in Gen 6:2 & 4, and we read that Rebekah the future wife of Isaac comes to water, where the other daughters of men come to do the same.

But above all else verwse 3, settles the matter, since God says;

3  And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.

Clearly He is speaking of men, and not angels, fallen or otherwise.


God Bless,

Petro

The verses that are sometimes refered to about the sons of God being Fallen angles are,  2 Peter 2:4 For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment;
(KJV)
And
Jude 1:6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
(KJV)

Not that I dissagree with what has been said thus far, but there is some question in my mind about this topic also.  

Firstly, why would Godly men marrying unbelieving women create Giants in the land?  This does not seem to be happening in todays age.  

Secondly, these angels were "cast down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment;"   These do not appear to be the same demons/fallen angels that are in rule with Lucifer on earth.  They are in chains of darkness reserved unto judgment.  Not possesing people or ruling as principalities of the air and so on.  So, if they are different fallen angels, what was their sin?

As for having bodies like men, the 2 angels that visited Lot, were seen by the men of the wicked city who wanted to "know them" in the biblical sense. (not intended to be funny).  Earthly men were obviously able to lust after their bodies.

So again, I have to ask, if these Sons of God were not angels, who are the angels spoken of in Peter and Jude, and what was their sin?

[Petro]

Actually, those who od reffering to angels take their argument fro m Job 1:6, when angels presented themselves before the Lord.

Then they make the leap to the NT as demons which possess men.

Others identify the seedline of (Gen 3:15)  the serpent as that of Satans offspring, and make the connection as angelic beings, who father offspring, and they use the verses jabez, has posted as their proof text.

It is a stretch of the imagination.

The word giant, doesn't necessarily mean or refer to physical stature, although it appears that there were giant men on the earth then, just as there are today.

It is clear from the account of Noah's flood, all including those giant men of renown perished, yet, we read the account of David who slew a giant, as a young boy.

So, the word giant may be a refererence to these mens accomplishments on the earth.  Either way, it most definitely is not speaking fo angel beings.


Blessings,

Petro

[loneranger]

Well, my church teaches that the sons of God were sethites, descendants of Seth.  they were the godly people back then, the daughters of women were descendants of Cain or canninites.  See, the canninite women had jewlery on and make up and stuff and made themselves look very pretty while the sethite women were modest and didnt dress as provocative.  As far as giants in the land , well it could mean they were makers and shakers, or like goliath , really big.  But everyone back then was really big. that was before the flood when people were healthier and lived longer because the air was purer and there was a protective covering of water  over the atmosphere.

[2nd Timothy]

Hmmm.  The more I look into this passage of scripture the more it seems to me it is speaking of Angels.   Every other mention of the "sons of God" in the old testiment refers to angels.   Also, at no time, before the Flood or after, has God destroyed or threatened to destroy the human race for the sin of mixed marriages.   Now, in Gen 6:1-2 he says the Sons of God and daughters of men.  If the writer meant the sons of Seth, why not say the Sons of Seth and the Daughters of Cain or men?    The current interpritation implies that Seth's sons were Godly and daughters of men were not.  Why were Seths sons destroyed in the flood?  Only Noah's family was found to be righteous.  All probing questions I think.

And still the question about the verse in Jude.

Jude 1:6-7
6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.
(KJV)

Clearly there is suggestion that angels left their estate (place of existance) and giving themselves over to fornication going after "strange" flesh.  

I firmly believe in the literal interpritation of Gods word, unless there is reason suggest otherwise.   I think this instance suggest there might be another interpritation.

Another one I verse I find interesting is...
In I Corinthians 11:10, Paul instructs that a woman should cover her head as a sign of subjection to her husband, and also "because of the angels".

I find Gen 6:1-2 to be very puzzling interprited as Sons of God, being Sons of Man.

[Petro]

2d Timothy's reply #7
Hmmm. The more I look into this passage of scripture the more it seems to me it is speaking of Angels. Every other mention of the "sons of God" in the old testiment refers to angels. Also, at no time, before the Flood or after, has God destroyed or threatened to destroy the human race for the sin of mixed marriages. Now, in Gen 6:1-2 he says the Sons of God and daughters of men. If the writer meant the sons of Seth, why not say the Sons of Seth and the Daughters of Cain or men? The current interpritation implies that Seth's sons were Godly and daughters of men were not. Why were Seths sons destroyed in the flood? Only Noah's family was found to be righteous. All probing questions I think.

And still the question about the verse in Jude.

Jude 1:6-7
6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day.
7 Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire.
(KJV)

Clearly there is suggestion that angels left their estate (place of existence) and giving themselves over to fornication going after "strange" flesh.

2d Tim,

By the way, welcome to the forum.

In referring to  Jude 1:6-7;
What you have stated, in your last sentence above, may be referring to leaving there place of habitation (dwelling place) as opposed to "existence" (state of being or in the case of the spiritual the realm), if you mean,

Since God is a Spirit, then the spiritual realm is the place of habitation for all that have their being in the spirit.  And everything within this realm is subjected to God the Spirit.

I think this is what you have in view herein.

It is evident that they were able to exist on the earth since at Job 1, Satan comes and presents himself  before the Lord, and when asked by the Lord;

7  Whence comest thou?;                       Satan answers;

From going to and fro in the earth, and from walking up and down in it.

So, clearly the realm of their existence seems to include the earth, added to this thought, they come and go from the presence of God in the heaven lies throughout the universe executing Gods will.

So on this note, we can now consider the rest of these verses;  it is clear from Genesis 3, Satan was able to indwell  the serpent , which gives rise then to the thought that angels, who indwell any of the created beings on the earth could be that "strange flesh," referred to at verse 7 of Jude 1.
The word fornication in the context of humans, is defined by the scriptures as;

...sexual relationships outside the bonds of marriage, as opposed to adultery and as it pertains to married persons.
But the NT often uses the term in a general sense for any unchastity.  And Paul who compiled 7 lists of sins found in his writings, fornication being the first found in 5 of them and is included in all of them.

Having said this, in The book of Revelation (Rev 14:8, 17:4) the word fornication is used symbolically as that of IDOLATRY, as any pagan religion defiles true worship of God.
Since there is no evidence given in the scriptures that angels are able to pro create after their kind (it is doubtful angels even possess a sexual organs or the ability to produce seed or offspring), and since Jesus refers to those that .............;

........shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.  (Mk 12:25)

.............it is doubtful that Jude 1, is speaking of fornication as that word which applies to the actual sexual act as pertain to the human act.

This then leaves fornication as used in the symbolic spiritual application, in worshipping or praising something or someone, other that the Lord, which brings us to the purpose for the existence of angels, what do the scriptures say about them;

They were created an innumerable host (Heb 12:22, Psa 148:1-5), they were present to rejoice when He created the world (Job 38:4-7), He rules over them and they are His ministers that do His pleasure (Psa 103:19-21), they are commanded to worship Him (Jesus) and are under His authority (Heb 1:6,1Pet3:22), they are not omnipotent (Heb 1 Pet 1:12), they desire to look into the things of God, especially the salvation of men, they are all ministering spirits, sent forth to minister for them who shall be heirs of salvation. (Heb 1:14)

The exception to all these attributes of course are the fallen angels who kept not their first estate by leaving their own habitation, (Jude 1:6)

In there original state they were holy, but in the revolt they followed and were lead by  Satan they lost their exalted position, and in doing so, it could very well have been that it is, here that fornication (spiritual idolatry) occurred, since they followed, served and did the bidding of Satan (their prince, Mat 12:24) (Rev 12:7-9) and continue even to this very day.

Something else to consider...Although all of the angels that were drawn from heaven (a third of them) by the dragon (Satan) were cast out of  heaven, not all fallen angels were placed into chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day, those who were not, are referred to as evil spirits or demons in the NT .
 
Blessings,

Petro

[Allinall]

There are two major disagreements that I have with the concept of these being angels:

1.  Christ says that angels do not marry...

For in the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage, but are like angels in heaven.

Matthew 22:30

This is contextually referring to the test the Pharisees gave Jesus about the woman passed on to 7 different dying brothers to wife.  Who's wife would she be in heaven?  He answers that they are like the angels which do not marry.  Marriage in scripture is always linked to becoming "one flesh" or having a biblically sexual union.  Angels do not do this according to Christ.

2.  Christ is referred to as "the seed of the woman" according to Genesis 3:15.  This means that He would not have a human father, but would have a human mother - He would be completely human but without the curse of sin, and completely God as well.  For an angel to father a child with a human female would place that offspring in a direct blasphemy of what Christ was to be - the seed of the woman.  As life comes from God, then God would have had to bless that union with life, and in effect, blaspheme the beauty of His eternal plan.  I find it hard to believe that He would do such a thing.

I could be wrong, but for these reasons I hold to the Godly line of Seth mixing with the sinful line of Cain.  I see this as the first instance of separation gone wrong.  And what was the outcome?  A world full of sin and a judgment of mammoth proportion.  God calls us out, and expects us to stay that way!  Just a thought...

[2nd Timothy]

shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven.  (Mk 12:25)

I had forgotten about this verse, thank you  I still have some querries about the matter however.   Not that this verse makes a difference in ones faith or anything, but obviously I need to pray and meditate on the issue before I speak further about it.   Thanks again for the input on the matter.

Love in Christ

[Allinall]

I had forgotten about this verse, thank you   I still have some querries about the matter however.  Not that this verse makes a difference in ones faith or anything, but obviously I need to pray and meditate on the issue before I speak further about it.  Thanks again for the input on the matter.

Welcome!  And I understand completely.  I know pastors who've had years of training that still are uncertain about this passage.  God bless as you think on it!  

[loneranger]

As to angels having sex with women and procreating, I find this concept to be untenable because angels are spirit beings and they do not have sperm with which to impregnate a woman.  Angels also do not have the power to create sperm.
angels cant turn themselves into a human being. Angels can manifest as humans but they arent human its all an illusion.
    God , who is the major  spirit being in the universe did not have sex with Mary and procreate with some of his sperm.  How did God do it then? simple . God created a new sperm to fertilize an egg of Mary's, thus creating the second adam , Jesus.Jeremiah 31:22 How long wilt thou go about, O thou backsliding daughter? forthe LORD hath created a new thing in the earth, A woman shall compass a man. the new thing the Lord created was a spermazoid.  a woman  (Mary) compassed or went around a man. went around a man for what? what does a woman need a man for? the answer should  be obvious.
  so, since the bible says Angels do not marry, and since even God had to create sperm to fertilze a womans egg, I conclude that angels do not and cannot procreate with humans.
   I'm taking a chance using the word sperm but I dont know how else to express this idea without using that word. Besides it's not a dirty word.