Sorry Dan, sounds like gobbledegook to me none of which is found in the Bible and what scripture that is tendered is "wrested".  Seems Peter said something about that, didn't he.

Keep studying,
God bless,
duval

Hi Dan

First, when in your understanding will the millenium be? 

Second, I suspect Jews and Gentiles will be saved in like way.

Third,  I probably won't have as much time for the forum.  My wife was on a trip and is now home.  Changes things you know.

But, God bless you anyway,
duval

Hello Jerry:

Your post was not addressed to anyone so I shall take the liberty of giving answer but to your question.

"So then a question:
What baptism was Jesus talking about in Mark 10:39? 

"They said unto Him, "We are able", and Jesus said unto them, "The cup that I drink ; and you shall be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized."

In a recent post I wrote there were at least (PLEASE NOTE THAT WORD LEAST) 3 BAPTISMS IN THE NT.  I said that because I felt this question would arise and sure enough you have brought it up.  Those baptisms are 1. Holy Spirit;  2.  water and 3. fire.  Now you ask about Mark 10:39  As we study the text, to me at least, its a baptism of suffering.  Note the context speaks of suffering.  Things having to do with disciple ship, shame, rejection, mocking, scourging the cross etc.  Jesus aske them can you do this?  Are you willing to drink this cup I drink."

God Bless
duval

Hi Dan

The body of Christ and the covenant for both Jew and Gentile began on the 1st Pentecost after the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead in Jerusalem.

Clear enough for you to dig in to?

God bless you in your search for truth,
duval

My friend I'm simply following what you currently write.

God bless

Hi Dan

In you reply # 12 you said Romans 16:16 had "God".  The text says "Christ."  My point remains in force: if in Rom.16:16 it is assemblies of Christ (plural) WHAT would the singular be??  Assembly of Christ of course.  I think BOTH of us know YOU are dodging the question.

Thinks for the spelling lesson on ekklesia.  HOWEVER if you had taken the time to note my reply #12 I DID spell the word ecclesia BEFORE spelling it with 2 cs.  Further evidence you are desperateliy trying to dodge the issue. 

I gave you a brief history on how the word "church" came in use.  That too you avoid.

God bless,

duval

Hi Dan

I did not say the body of Christ was given a covenant at the time of Eph.2

God bless
duval

Hi Dan

I got on this forum but recentliy and began making posts onliy to those posts which were current.  I shall continue to do so.  I am going where you lead, but you do not seem inclined to answer some matters like questions about that word "if" in I Jn.1.  If you wish to ignore it that is your problem and thus for all practical purposes you have torn I Jn.1 from your Bible .  Seems I remember a king in the OT who with his rash pinknife cut from God's Word what didn'tt suit him.  I suspect this will at least spur you on to give some attention to it.

God bless you in your search for the truth
duval

Dan

I have the Greek text, several in fact.  The Greek text does not have "God" in Rom.16:16 but "Christ".  Check it out.

As I pointed out in a previous post I've known the meaning of "ecclesia" and its relation.  Have so for years, maybe longer than you have lived, who knows? 

Blessed assurance,
duval

Hi Mr. Rogers

Thanks for the info on smileys, I didn't know that.

God bless,
duval

Hi Dan

I know what the kingdom is from reading the scripture.  If thats not sufficient none can make it.

God bless,
Duval

Dan I'm so happy you love my response.  I love it too.  I love it because it isn't mine.  Its from God.  Note what your verse in Eph.2:12 says  "---at that time--".  But you limit your post to the gentile yet entitle your topic "Does the body of Christ have a covenant".  Now just which one do you wish to talk about?  The gentile was not incliuded in the covenant of the OT (but only as a proselyte)  There was even a time when he was not incliuded in the bodiy of Christwhich is the church (or called out if you will).  But now  he is.  Yes, the bodiy of Christ has a covenant, the gentile included.

Hi Dan

If I understand you correctly I agree with the bulk of your last post.  The gospel was preached to every creature under heaven during Paul's lifetime.  There were saints before Jesus death.

Have a good day----duval

Hi Dan

I have Strongs and I have Vines and I have more than all that and I know what ekklesia means and I know as I think I have posted to you that church is used in our Engllish Blbles and that church got there from usage in Scandenavian countries and Germany.  Sir I know all that.  I know when Jesus said "will build my ----" the English Bibles use "church" and not "called out", "assembly" etc.
I KNOW ALL THAT BEFORE MEETING YOU, but dear sir, I continue to press, Rom.16:16  which would mean "the called out of Christ" or the "assemblly of Christ" and the same with Acts 20:28 except it uses the word "God" and not "Christ".

God bless,
duval

Hi Dan

My response was rational and UNLIKE any answer from those in denomninations. 

I ask if you had torn I Jn out of your Bible because you obviously had not dealt with the word "if".  Still waiting

God Bless,duval