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31  Theology / Prophecy - Current Events / Re: The New World Disorder on: February 18, 2006, 05:50:36 AM
While many are busy looking at the position of U.N. Secretary-General, few realize the military part with the U.N. Under-Secretary-General for Political and Security Council Affairs. A Soviet was first agreed to by President Truman to fill that post, and one from the Soviet block has held that position ever since 1992.

1946-1949  Arkady Sobeolev (USSR)
1949-1953  Konstatin Zinchenko (USSR)
1953-1954  Ilya Tchernychev (USSR)
1954-1957  Dragoslav Protitch (Yugoslavia)
1958-1960  Anatoly Dobrynin (USSR)
1960-1962  Georgy Arkadev (USSR)
1962-1963  E.D. Kiselev (USSR)
1963-1965  V.P. Suslov (USSR)
1965-1968  Alexei E. Nesterenko (USSR)
1968-1973  Leonid N. Kutakov (USSR)
1973-1978  Arkady N. Shevchenko (USSR)
1978-1981  Mikhail D. Sytenko (USSR)
1981-1986  Viacheslav A. Ustinov (USSR)
1987-1992 Vasiliy S. Safronchuk (USSR)
1992 -        Vladimir Petrovsky (Russia, "former USSR")
                 James O.C. Jonah (Sierra Leone)

Alger Hiss was the first U.N. Secretary-General at the San Francisco conference of signing the Charter in 1945. Hiss was a member of the Council On Foreign Relations think-tank, and later it was discovered he was a Soviet agent.

I'm not afraid to say it, the United Nations is a Communist organization through and through, and too many of our American leaders are in 'bed' with them and it. And it appears not that many of my fellow-Americans really care one way or the other. But they will care soon enough, as the New World Order functions that have been carried on in the past, and today, are initiated and furthered by the various U.N. organizations, to include world education, world politics, world finance, world health, world trade, and yes, now even religion!

The final phases for U.N. strategy is a merger with East and West, with only one military. (see Project Phoenix and "Blueprint For The Peace Race: Outline of Basic Provisions of a Treaty on General and Complete Disarmament in a Peaceful World").

dp
32  Theology / Prophecy - Current Events / Til Shiloh Come on: February 14, 2006, 05:47:23 AM
I offer this as a learning tool in God's Word. Some small sections of Scripture in God's Word lead to very profound discoveries for those who take the time to study God's Word for themselves (per 2 Timothy 2:15). For most believers here, this is going to be a real poser. Scholarly commentaries won't be a lot of help on this one either, but probably will lead to confusion about it. Only serious Bible study with our Lord's help will reveal all of it. This is not a test, it's an insight and encouragment towards Bible study.

Gen 49:10-11
10   The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto Him shall the gathering of the people be.
(KJV)

The above Scripture is very specific. The Name "Shiloh" is a symbolic name for our Lord Jesus Christ there. The area of Shiloh was in the land of Ephraim in the northern land of Israel in early Israelite history. That's where the Tabernacle worship was first established in the land of Promise when Israel came out of Egypt.

The conditions of that prophecy are, as written:

1. The "sceptre", which means the Sceptre of Royal Rulership, will not leave Judah's hand on earth, all the way up to the second coming of our Lord Jesus Christ.

2. Nor will a lawgiver part from Judah until Christ's second coming.

3. When Shiloh (Jesus) comes, that's when both will part from Judah, and be established directly through Christ's Rule, on earth, with His elect priests and kings.

4. That prophecy will be complete only when the gathering of the people to Christ Jesus happens, which is still yet future to us.

Background History:

God's Birthright Promise was first given through His servant Abraham, and then It went to Isaac, then Jacob, then Joseph, and then to Joseph's two sons Ephraim and Manasseh, where it stopped (see Gen.14 through Gen.49). Per 1 Chronicles 5:1-2, that Birthright included two parts, one the Sceptre Rule, and the other part the blessing of wealth and resources, i.e. the 'fat of the land' blessing to Jacob (Gen.27). Judah was to keep that Sceptre royal rule, but the Birthright was Joseph's, meaning the 'fat' blessing.

Judah in Jerusalem had that Sceptre rule from the time of king Saul down to king Zedekiah, upon whom it was taken away by his captivity to the king of Babylon in Jeremiah's day. King Zedekiah's sons were killed by the king of Babylon, and Zedekiah died while captive in Babylon. So Zedekiah had no son heirs to inherit that Sceptre Throne of Israel on earth. And it ended there in Jerusalem with king Zedekiah, as no king of Judah in Jerusalem has ever reigned there again since Zedekiah, even to today.

But, per that Genesis 49:10 verse, one of Judah must be holding that royal "sceptre", all the way up to Christ's coming and gathering of the people to Him. That was also part of God's Promise to His servant David in 2 Samuel 7 about establishing that throne forever.

So, the question is, did that throne on earth really end, and if not, then where is it today? If it did really end on earth today, then that would mean God's Promise to David was not true. But God does not go back on His Promises, for they are certain.

In Christ,
dp


33  Theology / Debate / Re: TONGUES - A SIGN on: February 13, 2006, 02:41:19 PM
Hello GKB,

I noticed you mentioned the Romans 8:26 passage about "groanings" in reply #22. The Greek word there means a 'sigh'. Paul is simply talking about times when we need God's help, and we don't know what to do or what to ask Him for. Instead, our spirit simply groans inside us, which is where The Holy Spirit takes up intercession for us. It is not about an 'outward' groaning, it's about an 'inward' groaning...

Rom 8:26
26   Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.
(KJV)

The phrase "which cannot be uttered" means unspeakable, so that is not meant as some outward speech. Acts 7:34 is the only other Scripture of that Greek word for 'groaning', and notice what the subject is there, about God telling Moses He had heard Israel's groaning, their affliction while captive in Egypt.

Like I said in my above post, it's not my intention to judge anyone on this matter. I believe the example of Acts 2 about the cloven tongue, and what it was and is to be used for. A closer look into the history of Christ's disciples being sent to peoples of many different languages reveals a major purpose for the cloven tongue, and we may assume from the Acts 2 example they did manifest that cloven tongue later in the same ways as Acts 2, as did others later (Acts 19:6). That would mean someone of one language going to a foreign nation today without the proper language might very well manifest the cloven tongue so the people there could understand. Moreover, the idea of prophesing in The Bible means to reveal or teach. So it's not about confusion, it's about understanding, and that's God's way.

Now if you understand the latter part of my above post, in reference to Joel 2 that Peter made, and, you've noticed many of the latter days signs in the world our Lord Jesus gave us, then you should be coming to a realization of another major manifesting of the true cloven tongue of Acts 2, to the whole world. That's what many seem to be lacking in their understanding today. Whether we speak a tongue today which no one can understand, or a tongue that is understood by people of different languages, the stage is now being set for the cloven tongue to manifest through Christ's witnesses who will be delivered up to councils and synagogues in our near future.

In Christ Jesus,
Dave

34  Theology / Debate / Re: TONGUES - A SIGN on: January 30, 2006, 08:01:36 AM
Greetings all,

Before I mention some Scriptural matters on this, I want everyone here to know it's not my intention to judge anyone on the speaking of a tongue different than what The Bible describes. I have some Christian friends that do speak a speech that I cannot understand, nor can others undertand. Yet those believers who speak such a tongue are varried in their Biblical understanding as much as other believers that don't manifest it.

Acts 2 is the guide for understanding what was spoken on Pentecost Day by The Holy Spirit through Christ's Apostles. Our personal opinions do not matter if they go against what God's Word says there in Acts 2. DigitGen did a good job Scripturally of describing what the true 'cloven' tongue manifesting is, per Acts 2.

Again, per Acts 2, which is the example for all believing Christians, everyone present there who heard that 'cloven' tongue understood in their own language and dialect of birth. The Holy Spirit even left a specific subject outline within Acts 2 on that word tongue per the Greek (a:glossa, b:dialektos, b:dialektos, a:glossa, which means 'language', 'dialect', 'dialect', 'language'). When that happens in Scripture it means God is sealing the Message in His Word. Those kind of subject outline Holy Spirit markings happen often in Scripture, and that's why we often see repeats of the same phrases within a single chapter, for emphasis.

Another point on this per Scripture, specifically the 1 Corinthians 14 Chapter, the KJV word "unknown" in the phrase "unknown tongue" is not in the Greek manuscrirpts of God's Word the translators used. The KJV translators added the word "unknown". So in verses like 1 Cor.14:2, remove the word "unknown", because it was added by the translators. It's not difficult to go to a Strong's Concordance to check me out on that. The word "tongue" in that 1 Cor.14 Chapter also is Greek 'glossa', meaning a known language of the world. Paul was definitely speaking about known languages of the world in 1 Corinthians 14.

1 Cor 14:10-11
10   There are, it may be, so many kinds of voices in the world, and none of them is without signification.
11   Therefore if I know not the meaning of the voice, I shall be unto him that speaketh a barbarian, and he that speaketh shall be a barbarian unto me.
(KJV)

When Paul talks about "voices in the world", he's talking about different languages, not the 'cloven tongue' of Pentecost. Paul was speaking about those with different languages speaking in the Church and causing confusion by not having an interpreter.

But that does not mean there is no 'cloven' tongue, because Acts 2 testifys there is. And further, Acts 2 shows everyone present heard in their own languages of birth when that 'cloven' tongue went forth out of the Apostle's mouths. We know that for sure by verses like this:

Acts 2:11
11   Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
(KJV)

The "wonderful works of God" is what the Apostles were teaching there on Pentecost Day to the multitudes by the cloven tongue. That means a Testimony by God through The Holy Spirit that is to be understood. But there's more there in Acts 2 about the manifesting of that cloven tongue.

Acts 2:16-20
16   But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel;
17   And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of My Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:
18   And on My servants and on My handmaidens I will pour out in those days of My Spirit; and they shall prophesy:
19   And I will shew wonders in heaven above, and signs in the earth beneath; blood, and fire, and vapour of smoke:
20   The sun shall be turned into darkness, and the moon into blood, before that great and notable day of the Lord come:
(KJV)

Peter is specifically quoting from Joel 2. How many have really studied Joel 2 & 3 to know what timing that is for? When Peter says, "this is that", that means the cloven tongue on Pentecost is only an 'example' of the prophesied event first given in the Book of Joel. Again, what timing is Joel 2 about?

Joel 2 mentions events like blowing the trumpet in Zion, the appearance of horsemen, entering in windows as a thief, earthquakes and days of darkness, the bridegroom going forth of his chamber, and the bride out of her closet, the four stages of the locust with God calling them " My great army which I sent among you", all happening before the Day of The LORD.

The "day of The LORD" means Christ's future "thousand years" reign on earth with His elect servants, mentioned in Rev.20. The sounding of the 7th trumpet, the "last trump", is when that Day of The LORD begins. The locust metaphor there in Joel 2 is about the locust army of Revelation 9. The great signs in the heavens and the earth are tribulation timing signs. The horsemen of course relate to the four horsemen of the Apocalypse per Revelation 6. Those symbols, especially the locust army symbol, relate to the seven signs of the latter days given in Revelation, a time leading up to Christ's second coming to begin the Day of The LORD.

In Mark 13, our Lord Jesus gave those signs also, and they tie directly to the seven seals of Revelation 6.
 
Mark 13:7-11
7   And when ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars, be ye not troubled: for such things must needs be; but the end shall not be yet.

As long as we hear of wars and rumors of war, Christ's return is not yet. But what's the opposite of wars and rumors of wars? Peace, but there is no peace. That's what we're really hearing now, but wars are still going on today. When they shall say, "Peace and safety", then watch out, all wars will have ended in prep for the tribulation (1 Thess.5).

8   For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be earthquakes in divers places, and there shall be famines and troubles: these are the beginnings of sorrows.
9   But take heed to yourselves: for they shall deliver you up to councils; and in the synagogues ye shall be beaten: and ye shall be brought before rulers and kings for My sake, for a testimony against them.

Now we're getting close to a link with the Joel 2 prophesy for the end days, concerning those who will give a Testimony for Christ Jesus.

10   And the gospel must first be published among all nations.

One of the Greek meanings for that word "published" is to herald like a public crier. Remember the days past when the town herald got up on a stand to make public proclomations to the town.

11   But when they shall lead you, and deliver you up, take no thought beforehand what ye shall speak, neither do ye premeditate: but whatsoever shall be given you in that hour, that speak ye: for it is not ye that speak, but the Holy Ghost.
(KJV)

Notice our Lord Jesus forewarns here, that if you are delivered up to those councils and synagogues to give a witness for Him, to not think beforehand what you will say, but speak what The Holy Spirit gives you to say in that hour. There's the link to the cloven tongue purpose in the latter days just before Christ's second coming. And that's the link to the events in Joel 2 Peter quoted on Pentecost Day.

Therefore, for those who do speak an unknown tongue, one that can't be understood, possibly it will manifest like Pentecost Day in our near future through those who are destined to be delivered up to give a Testimony for Christ, by The Holy Spirit speaking through them, and everyone hearing them in their own language of birth, even their own village dialect. That is certainly my hope for those. In the Luke 21 example of those events, Jesus said He would give those a mouth and wisdom that the adversaries willl not be able to gainsay nor resist. That's another clue of what the true cloven tongue of Pentecost is, what it's for, and what major latter day event it is reserved for. Everyone hearing it will definitely understand it in their own language.

There is a pure langauge unto The LORD:

Zeph 3:8-9
8   Therefore wait ye upon Me, saith the LORD, until the day that I rise up to the prey: for My determination is to gather the nations, that I may assemble the kingdoms, to pour upon them Mine indignation, even all My fierce anger: for all the earth shall be devoured with the fire of My jealousy.
9   For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve Him with one consent.
(KJV)

After Christ's second coming, we all will be speaking that "pure language". One only need to recall their Old Testament history in Genesis 10 & 11 about the tower of Babel. All nations spoke one language prior to that Babel event. There's about 7 main root languages that all known languages branched off of. They must have come from the early one language before the tower of Babel. There's the Scriptural link to the cloven tongue of Pentecost of why its true manifesting involves known languages of the world. God is not the author of confusion, but of peace.

In Christ,
dp
35  Theology / Apologetics / Re: HOW CAN WE SAY JESUS IS ONE WITH GOD AND STILL CONFESS A TRINITY? on: January 29, 2006, 11:07:08 PM
Question:  Is there any of the world's religions that have God as The Savior Who came in the flesh and died on the cross? The answer is no, only Christ Jesus. And per Hebrews 1 that's why He is called The only Begotten Son, for His Mission as The Savior to come in the flesh to die on the cross for the remission of sins. That Mission as Only Begotten Son is a distinction of God's Role as The Savior. It is a distinction between God The Father and God The Son, even though both are always One.

The non-believing Jews still refuse Jesus of Nazareth as God's Promised Savior, but didn't their fathers know? Yes, they knew, but their hearts being hardened refused to believe it as written in the Old Testament Books. So Who do they believe on? They still await Messiah, having remained only on The Father. And there's the rub.

I Jn 2:23
23   Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father: (but) he that acknowledgeth the Son hath the Father also.
(KJV)

This is why it's important to recogize God as The Father, The Son, and The Holy Spirit as written. To accept The Son is to recognize The Father also. They cannot be separated. And just becaue the non-believing Jews still deny The Son, but not The Father, it's a dillemma for them, for "Whosoever denieth the Son, the same hath not the Father" as written.

So in turn, focusing only on Jesus MUST include accepting The Father also, and that should mean grasping the Old Testament prophecy about The Promised Savior and God's Plan of Salvation given through His Holy prophets. We as Christians are not some separate entity from the Old Testament Patriarchs which believed The Gospel as we have (Galatians 3 and Hebrews 11). According to Paul in Galatians 3, all those who have believed on Jesus Christ as The Savior have become the 'children of Abraham'. How's that? It's because The Gospel was preached to Abraham also, and he believed as we have. He just didn't get to live to the time to see Christ's first coming.

1 Cor 10:1-4
1   Moreover, brethren, I would not that ye should be ignorant, how that all our fathers were under the cloud, and all passed through the sea;
2   And were all baptized unto Moses in the cloud and in the sea;
3   And did all eat the same spiritual meat;
4   And did all drink the same spiritual drink: for they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them: and that Rock was Christ.
(KJV)

So just because Jesus hadn't come yet in Moses' day, many since Abraham still knew of The Gospel of Jesus Christ, and those believed as we also. The Salvation Promise to Abraham was given first, even 400 years before the Old Covenant (Gen.14). Although one will not find our Lord's Name 'Jesus' in the Old Testament Books, He was well written of and known of by God's OT prophets (Luke 24:27).

Too often I see ideas like the "Oneness" doctrines and God's Israel vs. Christ's Church being used to create divisions that are not supposed to exist between believers on Christ Jesus. The Old Testament Books and New Testament Books go together, and should be understood together. With focusing only on the New Testament Books which mention our Lord Jesus' Mission in fulfillment, a much fuller understanding of His overall Plan of Salvation will be missed. As an example, the Old Testament Ezekiel 40 through 48 Chapters are still yet future to us, and begin at Jesus' second coming to this earth.

Others here have raised questions about doctrines like the "Oneness" ideas, and rightly so, because for the antichrist to be successful in deceiving the whole world in the future towards worshipping him in place of God, some religious theology must be devised to bring all the world's faiths together. And that is happening now in our time through the 'inter-faith' movement.

dp
36  Theology / General Theology / Re: What does it mean to be born again? on: January 26, 2006, 06:07:30 AM

Greetings in Christ Jesus,

I sense your intentions are honest when talking about the "born again" idea our Lord mentioned in John 3. But you might want to study a little deeper about water baptism and the receiving of The Holy Spirit. Per New Testament examples, they both did not always happen together (Acts 10:34-48, noting verses 47-48; Acts 11:15-16; Acts 19).

The "born again" Message our Lord Jesus gave is indeed about our spirit becoming a "new creature" to Christ, i.e. our old self "buried with Him by baptism into death". But it also has another deeper meaning which goes along with that involving the reason for man being born through woman's womb (John 3:5-6 is also connected with Hebrews 9:27, and Messages Paul taught about our flesh and spirit makeup in 1 Corinthians 15). So truly, the water our Lord Jesus was talking about there in John 3 is the water of woman's womb. And this verse reveals that's also how Nicodemus understood Him, although Nicodemus did not understand the Spirit operation:

John 3:4
4   Nicodemus saith unto Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?"
(KJV)

Documentation for this is in 1 Corinthians 15 by Paul, but in the Greek, because with the words "corruption", "incorruption", "mortal" and "immortality", Paul is speaking of 4 different conditions. Two of them are about our flesh body of corruption putting on a Heavenly body of incorruption, and the other two are about our mortal soul putting on immortality, all in order to enter into His Kingdom. This means the 'dead', i.e. the spiritually dead who refuse The Savior Jesus Christ, will still have "mortal" souls after Christ's coming, and they can still perish later in the "lake of fire" at the end of His future thousand years reign (Rev.20). In the fullest sense, their soul condition is not "born again" in Christ Jesus. They will still be subject to the "second death" (Rev.20). But those of the "first resurrection" are definitely "born again" in Christ Jesus, their soul putting on "immortality" then, and they will never die. This means Salvation through Christ Jesus has real substance to it, and we are to realize how our Heavenly Father and His Son fully interprets death, which is not just a death of the flesh body, but literally death of the soul (Matthew 10:28; Hebrews 2:14-15). However, without being born through woman's womb, we couldn't be offered Salvation through The Savior, so that aspect is just as important.

Who murdered our Lord Jesus on the cross? Our Lord Jesus was very specific who those were. It was a certain evil element within the Jews:

Matt 23:29-35
29   Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! because ye build the tombs of the prophets, and garnish the sepulchres of the righteous,
30   And say, "If we had been in the days of our fathers, we would not have been partakers with them in the blood of the prophets."
31   Wherefore ye be witnesses unto yourselves, that ye are the children of them which killed the prophets.
32   Fill ye up then the measure of your fathers.
33   Ye serpents, ye generation of vipers, how can ye escape the damnation of hell?
34   Wherefore, behold, I send unto you prophets, and wise men, and scribes: and some of them ye shall kill and crucify; and some of them shall ye scourge in your synagogues, and persecute them from city to city:
35   That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar.
(KJV)

Our Lord Jesus does not intend for all peoples to take the blame for His crucifixion. He singled out a group of the "workers of iniquity" who were behind it, as the above Scripture testifies. And if they refuse to repent, they will perish in their sins. Don't allow some man to put that guilt upon you when it does not belong on you. Our Lord Jesus is not angry with His that love and believe on Him. When He returns to rule with the rod of iron mentioned in Revelation, that rod is not for those who stay in Him and love Him. I realize you were speaking in the spiritual sense of all us being as filthy rags to God, all falling short of The Glory of God, but the act of His crucifixion belongs in the hand of murderers working for the devil. If you believe on The Savior then you are not in that condemnation, because we already were born into sin without having the blood guilt of our Lord's crucifixion on our hands. It was Judas who was chosen to fulfill the Scriptures about our Lord's crucifixion, as he acted in concert with those scribes and Pharisees that Jesus singled out:

John 6:70-71
70   Jesus answered them, "Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil?"
71   He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray Him, being one of the twelve.
(KJV)

John 17:12
12   While I was with them in the world, I kept them in Thy name: those that Thou gavest Me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled.
(KJV)

Judas was that "son of perdition" our Lord Jesus was talking about above. That title "son of perdition" is also one Satan's titles per 2 Thessalonians 2:3-4. So Judas was working for the devil in what he did, and thus Jesus said Judas was "a devil" because of that working.

In Christ,
dp

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