It is not so much that the Catholic Church did not permit the average person from reading the Bible as it was that the average person in the church (the congregation) could not read the Bible.

I believe in what you said.  Although many people believe that the Church purposely did not translate the Bible for the common folk so that the people wouldn't understand what the Bible "really" said.  What I would be interested in is what proof of this is there?  

 have often heard that the Catholic Church did not allow the people to read the Bible during the Middle Ages and that it wasn't until the Reformation that this was allowed. For those who believe this I would like to know why you beleive this and what proof do you have?

[porneia]

I have learned since my last post that porneia typically does not refer to adultery.  The word for adultery is usually  moicheia although this does not always apply.

This is not talking about a writ of divorcement. It says that he was going to put her into privacy so that no one would see her and know that she was pregnant.

I would have to dispute this because the RSV, NIV, NAB and others all use the word "divorce".  The only version that I know of that doesn't is the King James.

Mat 19:6  Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
Mat 19:7  They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
Mat 19:8  He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.

Jer 3:8  And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.

These verses are speaking of divorce during Old Testament times, not during and after the time of Jesus.  I know of nothing the the New Testament that allows for divorce except for Mat 5:23 which has been disputed either way.  If you know of any NT verses that allow for divorce let me know.

We are initially saved by faith and through water baptism. But it doesn't stop there.  There also has to be works.  "So faith by itself, if it has no works, is dead." Tim 2:17

[porneias]

From what I have researched the greek word porneias which is used in this scripture verse can mean several thing all dealing with being sexual in content including prostitution, adultery or an illicit marriage or relationship. The Vulgate says "except for fornication". The RSV says "except on the ground of unchastity". KJ "saving for the cause of fornication". NIV "except for marital unfaithfullness". Douay-Rheims "excepting for the cause of fornication". So there is no doubt that we are dealing with an illicit sexual relationship. Also seeing that the word porneias is being translated to fornication in many bible versions, the definition of which is having relations before marriage how does this play into the verse? So I suppose the real question is, is divorced allowed when Jesus in so many scripture passages is very stongly against it? Could it be that the divorce being allowed is similar to when Joseph was going to quietly divorce Mary who was betrothed to Joseph but they had not yet come together and that after a marriage is consumated divorce is not allowed?

In the Catholic Bible Matthew 5:32 says "But I say to you, whoever divorces his wife (unless the marriage is unlawfull) causes her to commit adultery,..." NAB. In the Protestant NIV bible it replaces"(unless the marriage is unlawfull)" with "except for marital unfaithfullness". Why the difference?