Some of you think that tongues were a sign to Israel only?

Why then does Paul give such detailed instructions regarding tongues to the Corinthians?

Obviously you haven't taken a look at any maps showing the distance between Israel and Corinth.

Tongues as a sign to Israel?

So what, are you saying that they've died out?  I'm not buying that lie.

1.  I know better.
2.  What now, only 8 gifts of the Spirit?
3.  Wait, if tongues is out.. then interpretation of tongues would be out too.. so only 7 gifts of the Spirit..
4.  Wait, if that's not right, then we might as well just remove 1 - 2 Corinthians.

Take a look:


Paul sure did tell the people in Corinth what the gifts of the Spirit are.  If they were only meant as a 'sign to the people in Israel', then you're saying they were meant as a sign to unbelievers.. and you say they were a sign to an 'unbelieving and adulteress generation' if that's the case, then when Jesus said that the only sign they'd get would be the sign of Jonah.. than that would make Him a liar?

What did Jesus say about true believers?

Did He not say that they would speak in other/new languages?

If you mean that to only apply for 34-100 A.D. and not after that..?

So you're so biased against speaking in tongues?  Why?  Because that's what you've been taught?  That it's "of the devil"?  Or that it "died out"?

Wake up.  Quit following the traditions of man, start following the Spirit of God.