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Many a people have missed salvatoin because they've been taught Acts 2:38 is a plan of salvation - very sad  :'(

Context of Acts 2 – Peter is preaching a message in light of the events that took place earlier – the Holy Ghost coming down.

In a nutshell:  Peter preaches to the Jews saying, “This Jesus of whom your patriarch David spoke of was your Messiah and look what you did – you murdered him.”  The Jews got convicted and said, “What must we do?”  Notice they didn’t say, “What must we do to be saved? Like the jailer said later in Acts 16:30.  The didn’t asked what to do to be saved because they were not hearing a message about salvation at that time for Peter did not even know about Christ dying for sins at that time.  The Jews at Pentecost asked, “What must we do in light of us murdering our messiah?”  Peter answers:

“Repent” – not of your sins but of murder and of their rejection of God the Father in the OT and of Jesus in the gospels!

“And be baptized” – according to John’s baptism - Now, why did John baptize?  Look at John 1:31 - And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel, therefore am I come baptizing with water.

The message during John’s time was, (my paraphrase) “Believe that Jesus was the messiah and to show you believe get baptized.”  The issue was – were they going to believe that Jesus was their messiah for if not they would die in their sins - John 8:24  I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
The message wasn’t the message we preach today (I Cor. 15:1-5).  The message was, “Believe Jesus is your messiah and get baptized.”

“in the name of Jesus Christ” – see above – the issue was believing that Jesus was the messiah not believing Jesus was your saviour as today.

“for the remission of sins” – notice Peter used the word remission not forgiveness.  Israel would not be forgiven till the second advent (Acts 3:19,20).

“and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.” – self-explanatory.

The tongues were there as a sign of judgment to the unbelieving Jews that were there (I Cor. 1:22; 14:22).
Don’t want to start another thread here but the reason the signs and gifts are gone today is because God is not dealing with Israel as a nation so the signs left off the scene.  When God dealt with unbelieving Jews he always used signs.  The tongues were a sign of their rejection of their messiah.  Remember tongues are for a sign not to believers but for unbelievers.  A little different from how people use tongues today.

That is enough for now but that is what I believe Acts 2:38 is – it is not a salvation message today whatsoever.

May God bless  8)

Many a people have missed salvatoin because they've been taught Acts 2:38 is a plan of salvation - very sad :'(

Dont be sad ;D I followed Acts 2:38 and it worked just fine.

Repent and believe the gospel is good enough for me :)

Do you have another plan?

Praise God and God bless

So your contention is that there is something more, not mentioned in this verse, that is required for salvation?  What is it that people have missed by following this approach?  Is there some work you are encouraging them to do in addition to repentance and baptism and reception of the Holy Spirit.  Do you claim those that accomplished these things have more to do to be saved?


But the preceding discussion is about salvation, look at Acts 2:21.  The entire message was so important that it was given in all languages of those who heard it.  What could be so important?  The good news of salvation.  

Act 2:21  And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

Are you claiming that Peter who was filled with the Holy Spirit (as you point out because that was the preceding event), still didn't understand that Christ died for our sins, even with the Holy Spirit in him?  Nonsense.  

So when Christ told them He was going away and promised that the Holy Spirit would come and explain it to them, even then Peter and the others did not understand?  Did Christ break His promise?  Or maybe the Holy Spirit just hadn't gotten around to it yet?

Joh 16:7-13  Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you.   And when he is come, he will reprove the world of sin, and of righteousness, and of judgment:   Of sin, because they believe not on me;   Of righteousness, because I go to my Father, and ye see me no more;   Of judgment, because the prince of this world is judged.   I have yet many things to say unto you, but ye cannot bear them now.   Howbeit when he, the Spirit of truth, is come, he will guide you into all truth: for he shall not speak of himself; but whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak: and he will shew you things to come.

Earlier during Christ's ministry Jesus told them he was here to save man.  What did Peter think when Christ told them to go out and preach and baptize to save men?

Mar 16:15-16  And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.   He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.

It looks to me that Peter was just doing in Acts 2:38 exactly what Jesus had told them to do in Mark 16;15-16.

So even when Christ told them what His purpose was Peter still didn't understand?

Matt 26:28  For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

So are you claiming that somewhere between Acts 2:38 and Acts 16:30 Peter understood?  What was it that occurred to do this?  Where do we see this event in scripture?  Or are you trying to say that Paul understood the message of salvation prior to Peter and the other Apostles?

Just when do you think Peter and the others finally understood that Christ was the savior of the world?  Please provide a verse to support your claim.


I don't accept this idea either.  John seemed to understand that the Messiah was to take away the sins of the world.

John 1:29  The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.


That was the understanding of the Jews as to what it meant to be saved.  They believed that if you were made sinless somehow that you would go to heaven.  It is strange that you, who believe in imputed righteousness have a problem with this as that is all your doctrine requires (that your sins be remitted) to be saved.


The Jews understood the Messiah as the Christ and as the  Savior, all three one and the same.

Joh 4:25  The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.

Joh 4:42  And said unto the woman, Now we believe, not because of thy saying: for we have heard him ourselves, and know that this is indeed the Christ, the Saviour of the world.


How do you see remission and forgiveness being different?


So the Jews who knew nothing of the Trinity accepted the idea of a second person of the Godhead and welcomed the reception of this without understanding that Jesus was the third person of the same Godhead and did not understand that He was the savior?  

Also are you trying to teach that it is possible to have the Holy Spirit abide within you and still not be saved?  Because the Jews were told they would receive Him, and yet you claim they had not even been forgiven of their sins.

1. What did you repent of?  Are you counting on being baptized? Are you saying Acts 2:38 is the gospel for you today?

2.  I don't but how about The gospel that Paul preached - I Cor. 15:1-5?  Paul's gospel is different from Peter's in Acts 2 - which message are you going by?

Michael said:

"Because the Jews were told they would receive Him, and yet you claim they had not even been forgiven of their sins."

Ok then - how does your statement above line up with Acts 3:19-2?

Looks like future tense to me.  The "shall send" is not referring to Calvary.

You are quoting me out of context and so mistaking my point.  I said in full;

"Also are you trying to teach that it is possible to have the Holy Spirit abide within you and still not be saved?  Because the Jews were told they would receive Him, and yet you claim they had not even been forgiven of their sins."

You ask about Acts 3:19-20 but it is refering to Jesus as Him.  The verse I was referring to was your use of Acts 2:38 where the Him is the Holy Spirit, which they are told they will receive when they are Baptized.  So it is not a future event.  

So my question remains.  

Are you trying to teach that it is possible to have the Holy Spirit abide within you and still not be saved?

wow where did you find that nutshell?  
Dig a little deeper!
Pray a little harder!

From Paul - I Cor. 15:1-5 - Again, Peter's message is different - you can't see that?

Michael asks:

"Are you trying to teach that it is possible to have the Holy Spirit abide within you and still not be saved?"

Not today - today in Romans Paul says:
Rom 8:9  But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his.

Back then before Paul's gospel was preached and there was no sealing with the Spirit - Eph. 1:13 - I'm just not sure how it was working out.  Just trying to be honest here - you are dealing with a message primarily for Israel with the earthly kingdom right around the corner.  There is not the body of Christ in Acts 2 - that didn't come till later with Paul.
 
I believe they were saved (or even in the process of being saved) but there was no sealing back then but there was an indwelling.

So...
Answer - Yes, back in the early part of Acts before Paul.
Answer - No for today - since Paul's gospel is out and the sealing with the Spirit is here.

Now I know you both will have a field day with this but that's fine.

I believe Israel as a nation was not forgiven as of yet for they, as a nation, had not accepted their Messiah yet.  They will at the Second Advent and then their sins will be blotted out just as Acts 3:19 states very clearly.

Obviously I wasn’t clear in my initial post.  Let’s review:
1. “Repent” – repent of murdering their Messiah not of their sins (not in the verse).

2. "Be baptized” – John’s baptism of John 1:31 – the problem with Israel in Acts was still the same problem they had since John the Baptist – believe that Jesus was your Messiah.

3. “For the remission of sins” – not forgiveness – the words are different – In the English remission carries with it: 1.  Abatement; relaxation; moderation; as the remission of extreme rigor.  Israel as a nation will have their sins blotted out at the Second Advent – Acts 3:19-21.  My sins are gone now – Eph. 1:7. The word remission was primarily used in the Gospels, Acts, and Hebrews - this should be a clue in itself.  Paul uses forgiveness more.  He only used remission once in Romans and this could have been referring to the Jews of the past or anybody in the past until Calvary.

4. “gift of the Holy Ghost” – of course they got the Holy Ghost but they were not sealed at that time for that would come later through Paul’s ministry – Eph. 1:13

I’ve tried to make it as simple and clear as I can.

Now for GOD’s salvation plan in a nutshell.  

Acts 2:38-40

And Peter said to them, "Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.  For the promise is to you and to your children and to all that are far off, every one whom the Lord our God calls to him." And he testified with many other words and exhorted them, saying, "Save yourselves from this crooked generation."
 

The crowd is confronted with the knowledge that the very Messiah that they have long awaited has been rejected and crucified some 50 days beforehand.  They had just heard Peter, in the language of Joel, speak of  salvation;
 "And it shall be, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be SAVED."
and then Peter tells them, "Let all the house of Israel therefore know assuredly, that God hath made him both Lord and Christ, this Jesus whom ye crucified."
They realize the terrible mistake they have made and are fearful because they have been named enemies of the only One who could save them.  
So verse 37, they ask, “What shall we do?”  and the question, “What shall we do?” indisputably means, What shall we do to be saved.
For verse 41 tells us  "They then that received his word were baptized: and there were added unto them in that day about three thousand souls." and the passage ends with these words  "And the Lord added to them day by day those that were SAVED."  
Clearly a passage on salvation, and clearly a salvation plan that extends to the end of time with Peter telling them this promise  is for everyone whom our God calls!

Here is your major problem, Paul didn't have a Gospel.  The Gospel is Jesus Christ's and His alone.  Paul could only preach that which was revealed to him by Jesus.

Paul himself warns those who followed him to not follow other gospels but only the Gospel of Jesus.

Gal 1:6-7  I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:   Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.


So God who cannot be in the presence of anything that is unholy can indwell someone who is not saved?  This just makes no sense.


You are just reading that into it based on the lack of the specific term being mentioned.  But even though it is not mentioned it is implied.  The message given during the period of speaking in tongues just prior was one of salvation (see Acts 2:21 which I have referenced in a previous post) and that requires forgiveness of sins.  So yes the repenting is implied to be about repenting of sins.


How do you know that this is in reference to John's Baptism?  It appears this is just another assumption of yours.


No the words turn out not to be different at all.  The Greek translated as remission in Acts 2:38 is aphesis - Strong's 859 meaning  deliverance, forgiveness, liberty, remission.  The term forgiveness in Eph 1:7 which you reference is translated from exactly the same Greek word.  This is the type of error in interpretation that results from using only the KJV to the extreme of ignoring the original Greek which you have told me you do.


So once again, you claim God who cannot be in the presence of anything that is unholy can indwell someone who is not saved?  I repeat this just makes no sense.

Good teaching, AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAMen

Then to quote Paul, is Christ divided? Why give Peter the keys to the kingdom, if Pauls going to come along and change the locks. The NT is better understood when you fully reconize it is  one great unifying, but distinctively told, message about Jesus Christ. This is the "gospel",  and the apostles and writers of the NT (inspired by GOD) are in unity of message and spirit, and with this in mind, if what they have written does not SEEM to leave them in agreement with one other, then you must start the "rightly dividing" all over. Furthermore, to say the salvation message as penned and inspired by God thru Peter is not God`s salvation message to us, is to preach another gospel, and surely not the gospel  Paul preached - very sad   :'(

Michael said:

"Here is your major problem, Paul didn't have a Gospel.  The Gospel is Jesus Christ's and His alone.  Paul could only preach that which was revealed to him by Jesus."

Below is what I was referring to when Paul says it was "his gospel":

Rom 2:16  In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.
Rom 16:25  Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel,
2 Tim 2:8  Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my gospel:

I understand that Paul got his message from Christ directly:
2 Cor 12:7  And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations,
Acts 26:16  But rise, and stand upon thy feet: for I have appeared unto thee for this purpose, to make thee a minister and a witness both of these things which thou hast seen, and of those things in the which I will appear unto thee;
Gal 1:12  For I neither received it of man, neither was I taught it, but by the revelation of Jesus Christ.

Micahel said:

"How do you know that this is in reference to John's Baptism?  It appears this is just another assumption of yours."

Just show me where John's message of baptism changed from John 1:31.

Michael said:

"The Greek translated as remission in Acts 2:38 is aphesis - Strong's 859 meaning  deliverance, forgiveness, liberty, remission."

Again we have different authorities - which Greek lexicon or mss?  
My authority is the King James Bible and if I need to look up a word I will look it up in a Webster's but the final authroity is the KJV. You already know this about me so when you quote the Greek to me it is falling on deaf ears - sorry.

Michael said:

"So verse 37, they ask, “What shall we do?”  and the question, “What shall we do?” indisputably means, What shall we do to be saved."

No, the verse doesn't say that - you are assuming it says that but it doesn't say that - you are adding to it - very clear you are Michael because if God wanted it there then He would have added it there.  When the issue of salvation comes up later then the jailer asks:
Acts 16:30  And brought them out, and said, Sirs, what must I do to be saved?  You just can't beat the book!!!

I'm not saying people were not "saved" - it is not the same salvation that we have today for back then there was no sealing, raising, redemption, etc. - all those truths that Paul spoke of - It was a kingdom age message aimed primarily for Jews before they finally rejected the kingdom offer and before Christ revealed the body of Chrsit truths to Paul later on.

I have to run - it has been interesting.

Someday soon I pray you will find that this teahing is true, the only thing sad is most do not see this.

Ambassador4Christ said:

"Someday soon I pray you will find that this teahing is true, the only thing sad is most do not see this."

I agree with Ambassador4Christ whole-heartedly. :)

Fellas, you keep lumping it all together – you’ve got to differentiate between how God deals with Israel as a nation vs. how God deals with the body of Christ. In the early part of Acts there is no body of Christ yet – God is still dealing with Israel.  Until you see this truth then you will keep trying put a square peg in a round hole.

My friends - start with Paul as Paul tells you to:

2 Tim 2:7  Consider what I say; and the Lord give thee understanding in all things.

May God bless  :)

My point was that Paul's teaching concerning salvation and Christ's cannot be different and your interpretation of Paul's message is different from the Gospel message of Jesus.



I didn't say that John the Baptist's message changed I am saying that the apostles never baptized in John's baptism they baptized in the name of the father and the son and the holy spirit and you assume with no basis that this is not the baptism referred to in Acts 2.  I repeat do you have any basis to claim that the Apostles were intending the Baptism of John the Baptism and not the Baptism they had been sent out by Christ to do?

In fact we see in Acts 2:38 that this is not John the Baptist's baptism as he did not baptize in Jesus name and no one ever received the gift of the Holy Spirit through John's baptism.

Act 2:38  Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

Why would Peter be instructing people to be baptized as John the Baptist did it when Jesus told him to do it differently?

Mat 28:19  Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:


The two words are the same in the textus receptus the basis of the KJV.  To accept the KJV and not accept the Greek it was translated from is illogical.


I understand your position, that doesn't mean I won't point out the flaws and inconsistencies in it for other readers to see.


This wasn't me this was Shy Lynne - you got us confused trying to answer two posts at once.  It is more respectful to address each persons objects separately as lumping us together does more than lead to confusion as you will find your debaters may not agree on many points between themselves as well, (Shy Lynne and I are a good example) and an argument that carries weight with me may be non-sensical to her and vice versa.

My point, which you have not addressed yet, was that the preceeding events make it clear the remission/forgiveness of sins was for salvation as referred to in Acts 2:21

Act 2:21  And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

...and this is not some form of "saved" that is different from salvation, as you claim below because we see elsewhere that calling on His name is one of the descriptions used to refer to the faith of salvation.

John 1:12  But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:

John 3:18  He that believeth on him is not condemned: but he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

John 20:31  But these are written, that ye might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing ye might have life through his name.

In fact Paul uses the same instruction to direct the gentiles in Rome to be saved.

Rom 10:13  For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved - which even in your multiple definitions of the word must be discussing salvation.


So now you don't use Webster to find out what a word means - you redefine it on your own just because it doesn't fit your doctrine until it is redefined.  Saved doesn't mean saved in the same way in two different areas of the scriptures.  That type of inconsistency is never going to result in sound doctrine.


So now you claim that Paul had additional revelations of Christ's message later in separate events from the ebing struck off his horse and left blind.  Tell me where do you get this idea?  The only instruction Paul got after that time was from Peter in Galatians.

You don't use the Greek if it contradicts your preconceived doctrine.

You don't use webster if it contradicts your preconceived doctrine.

And now you go outside of scripture to claim Paul recieved additional instruction as time went by that the Apostles did not even receive when Christ was on earth.

You know of course what else that means you are not using because it contradicts you preconceived doctrine!

1Co 1:12  Now this I say, that every one of you saith, I am of Paul; and I of Apollos; and I of Cephas; and I of Christ.
1Co 1:13  Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?

So what do we have here in this tread... followers of Paul?

Interesting

Maybe a little more study of the context of I Cor. 1:12,13 will be needed in light of the below verses.

1 Cor 4:16  Wherefore I beseech you, be ye followers of me.
1 Cor 11:1  Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ.
2 Tim 2:7  Consider what I say; and the Lord give thee understanding in all things.

Nice chatting with you.  :)

Now that explains a lot lol.

Maybe AVBunyan a little more study of the context of the whole of the gospels is be needed on your part in light of (quoting michael) "saved doesn't mean saved in the same way in two different areas of the scriptures."
The lack of any real depth of study is so evident where the student of the Word, draws conclusions which cause the message as a whole to appear to contradict itself.

I think michael is to be commended for his willingness to search the scripture to see if these things be true,
...perhaps he is more of a true berean than some...who will surely say amen if it looks good, sounds good, and soothes the itchy ears  ;D










 

1 Cor 4:16  Wherefore I beseech you, be ye followers of me.
1 Cor 11:1  Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ.


even as I also am of Christ.

Sorry Paul was a follower of Christ and rebuked the church for saying they where followers of him.


1Co 1:13  Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?

Who was crucified for you AVBunyan?

Whos name where you baptized in?

Nice talking to you too :)

There is only one gospel and Paul and Peter preached the same good news of the Christ Jesus.

Here is the problem with using the KJV in English only to the exclusion of even the original Greek.

If we have a couple of verses that the KJV in English uses two different words for similar if not identical topics then we might be tempted to come up with a doctrine based on that difference.  This is true even if the original inspired writings used the exact same word for both terms.  We could take the position that the English is an inspired translation but then we develop still more problems.

But what happens for those who use the KJV in another language?  Perhaps one that uses the same word for both terms.  Do they develop different doctrine than those of the same denomination that use the KJV in English?  If they do then whose doctrine is right and whose is wrong?  Or if they develop the same doctrine how do they justify it.

The problem is because we have to decide on how we arrive at a KJV for other languages.  Do people who use the KJV in other languages get their translation of the Bible from the English or from the original languages as the original translators of the KJV prided themselves on?

Regardless of which method chosen the above problem can still arise because this other language may not have a one to one correspondence with English anymore than it has a one to one correspondence with Greek.  

But more than that - if we have them translate from the original Greek then each translation to a new language must be taken as inspired as well.  Therefore if they come up with terms where the same word is repeated when two different terms are used in another inspired language translation then we have inspired translations from which it is possible to develop contrasting doctrines.  If on the other hand we have them translate from the English for each new language version of the KJV then we force those using other languages to become scholars in English just so we can avoid becoming scholars in Greek.

And what of those who read the Bible in Greek?  Do they rely on translating the KJV into Greek from English when they had it in the original Greek to begin with?  That makes no sense at all, and even if they do that they still end up with the same problem of two words in English resulting in only one word in Greek.  

The problem you seem to think you have resolved (that of not requiring your average English speaking Christian of having to be a scholar and study the original languages) has merely been transferred to the rest of the world.  So the problem is actually larger since the rest of the world actually represents a vast majority of Christians; since English is a minority language.  

This entire approach is characterized by what is known as ethnocentricity and is fraught with difficulties if not even inherent prejudices.

There is only one gospel and Paul and Peter preached the same good news of the Christ Jesus.

You read both messages and tell me they are the same:  ???

Acts 2:38  Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

1 Cor 15:1  Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;
1 Cor 15:2  By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.
1 Cor 15:3  For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
1 Cor 15:4  And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

This is the gospel of Jesus Christ...and if anyone teaches any other.. well you know.


Matthew 28:16-20 (KJV)
16. Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them.
17. And when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted.
18. And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
19. Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
20. Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen.


Mark 16:15-18(KJV)
15. And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16. He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17. And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
18. They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.


Luke 24:45-47(KJV)
45. Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures,
46. And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
47. And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.


Acts 2:36-39(KJV)
36. Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.
37. Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
38. Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
39. For the promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call.



38. Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

47. And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among ALL nations, beginning at
Jerusalem.

So you see...simple :)

Of course they are the same, same Spirit wrote them both.

one is more detailed and complete than the other but they certainly do not contradict each other.

Acts 2:38  Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

This teaches that the we must repent and be baptized in the name of Jesus (not the baptism of John the Baptist as he did not baptize in Jesus name) for the forgiveness of sins (which is the reason Christ was crucified and raised again) and we will abide with God and He with us (which is what salvation is all about).

1 Cor 15:1-4  Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel which I preached unto you, which also ye have received, and wherein ye stand;  By which also ye are saved, if ye keep in memory what I preached unto you, unless ye have believed in vain.  For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;  And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

This teaches that we hear the Gospel (the good news that Christ died for our sins to make salvation possible for us) and that if we obey that Gospel and stay or abide in His teachings we will be saved.  That Christ was crucified for our sins and was resurrected and rose to heaven (all implicit in the teachings of the Gospel).

Just because one set of verses is more complete than another does not mean they are contradicting each other.  For example:

John 15:17  These things I command you, that ye love one another.

1 John 3:23  And this is his commandment, That we should believe on the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another, as he gave us commandment.

If you think these teach two different Gospels you are mistaken.  One seems to say all we are commanded to do is love one another.  But when we consider it in relation to the second we see that we need to believe in Jesus AND love one another.

The important thing is that we should not try to develop doctrine based on the simpler statement without considering the more detailed discussion.  This is what you seem to have done in your comparing Acts 2 and 1 Cor 15.  We should look for harmony in the scriptures as we attempt to interpret scripture, not contradiction.

Now theres an AAAAAAAAAAAAAmen :)


Gospel of Paul

1 Cor 15:1-4  Moreover, brethren, I declare unto you the gospel....how that Christ DIED for our sins according to the scriptures;  And that he was BURIED, and that he ROSE again the third day

Gospel of Peter

Then Peter said unto them, REPENT, and be BAPTIZED every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the HOLY GHOST.

Both the same my friend.


The gospel for all mankind...

Death=Repentance=Die out to sin
Buried=Baptism=Buried with him through baptism
Resurrection=Holy Ghost=Walk in newness of life


Praise the Lord... it doesnt get any plainer than this. ;D

The Gospel preached by Peter was the same that was preached by Paul, as well as Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, James, and Jude, and all the other apostles and evangelists.

The Bible has ONLY ONE GOSPEL MESSAGE, which was preached to Adam, Abel, Enoch, Noah, Abraham and Moses, as well as to the children of Israel. Why don't you first go and check all references to the word "Gospel" and confirm this truth.

The Gospel is a PERSON -- the Lord Jesus Christ, and HIS FINISHED WORK ON THE CROSS.  Before the cross, the Hebrews looked FORWARD to the Lamb of God, and were saved by grace.  After the resurrection of Christ, sinners look backward to the cross and are saved by grace. JESUS CHRIST IS THE SAME YESTERDAY, TODAY, AND FOREVER, and His Gospel is just as unchanging as He is. Praise God for that truth.

The gospel for all mankind...

Death=Repentance=Die out to sin
Buried=Baptism=Buried with him through baptism
Resurrection=Holy Ghost=Walk in newness of life
 
The Bible has ONLY ONE GOSPEL MESSAGE...and His Gospel is just as unchanging as He is. Praise God for that truth.


amen.

The Gospel:

Peter:  
Acts 2:22.  Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know:
 23.  Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain:
 24.  Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.  .....

...Acts 2:32.  This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.
 33.  Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the Promise of the Holy Ghost, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear.
 34.  For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The Lord said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand,
 35.  Until I make thy foes thy footstool.
 36.  Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.

What must they do:

 Acts 2:37.  Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?
 38.  Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.


Paul:
1 Cor 15:3  For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received, how that Christ died for our sins according to the scriptures;
4  And that he was buried, and that he rose again the third day according to the scriptures:

The difference being that Paul is writing to believers that have already heard and obeyed the gospel.

Peter is intially talking to unbelievers who are pricked in their hearts by hearing the gospel and want to know what they must do to obey upon believing the gospel.

The difference being that Paul is writing to believers that have already heard and obeyed the gospel.

Peter is intially talking to unbelievers who are pricked in their hearts by hearing the gospel and want to know what they must do to obey upon believing the gospel.

Amen Ollie ;D

Thats where some people get this messed up, they take the letters to the church...people who have already obeyed the gospel...and confuse it with the gospel for unbelievers...same gospel of coarse. :)

There is no gospel of grace mentioned in Acts.  The Jews who were under conviction did not asked what must we do to be saved?  They asked what must we do in light of their murdering their messiah.

Later in Acts 16:30,31 the jailer asked what must I do to be saved.

The Holy Spirit showed you the difference by the different wording,

Big difference.

No this makes no sense in context to the preceeding events.  They didn't have to ask what to do to be saved because it was known to all that, that was what the topic of the witnessing of the Apostles had been just before.

Look at the flow of what happened.

In Acts 2:4 The Apostles are filled with the Holy Spirit.

Act 2:4  And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

In Acts 2:21 the Apostles go out witnessing about salvation

Act 2:21  And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.

In Acts 2:37 the Jews were convicted in their hearts and asked what they should do.

Act 2:37  Now when they heard this, they were pricked in their heart, and said unto Peter and to the rest of the apostles, Men and brethren, what shall we do?

In Acts 2:38 the Apostles tell them to repent, be Baptized (calling on the name of the Lord) and receive the Holy Spirit.

Act 2:38  Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

In Acts 2:41 some of the Jews were baptized and added to the Church.

Act 2:41  Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls.

So we have salvation, repentance, baptism, the Holy Spirit and membership in the Church mentioned all within one chapter, and that doesn't seem to you to be the Gospel of Grace?


No it doesn't use a different word.  Saved is used in Acts 16:30-31 and it is used in Acts 2:21, same word both times.


No difference.

There is no gospel of grace mentioned in Acts.

You better look harder in Acts for the word grace...AVBunyun


Act 4:33  And with great power gave the apostles witness of the resurrection of the Lord Jesus: and great GRACE was upon them all.

Act 11:23  Who, when he came, and had seen the GRACE of God, was glad, and exhorted them all, that with purpose of heart they would cleave unto the Lord.

Act 13:43  Now when the congregation was broken up, many of the Jews and religious proselytes followed Paul and Barnabas: who, speaking to them, persuaded them to continue in the GRACE of God.

Act 14:3  Long time therefore abode they speaking boldly in the Lord, which gave testimony unto the word of his GRACE, and granted signs and wonders to be done by their hands.


Act 20:24  But none of these things move me, neither count I my life dear unto myself, so that I might finish my course with joy, and the ministry, which I have received of the Lord Jesus, to testify the GOSPEL of the GRACE of God.

to testify the GOSPEL of the GRACE of God.

And theres more...sounds like grace to me.